CCNP 2: Remote Access Chapter 8

1
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When defining interesting traffic in a dialer watch configuration, why should routing protocol traffic be denied?
to prevent the back up line from being advertised in the routing protocol
to prevent periodic Hello packets from resetting the idle timeout*
to prevent periodic Hello packets from enabling the backup line
to allow the static route to take precedence over the routing protocol
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When the backup delay is configured, what does disable-delay specify in the command?
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the secondary line*
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line goes down before the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that the primary line stays down after the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the secondary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the primary line
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What is the purpose of the the keyword never when configuring backup delay?
It enables the primary line to remain active after it is activated.
It enables the secondary line to remain active after it is activated.
It prevents the primary line from being activated or deactivated.
It prevents the secondary line from being activated or deactivated.*
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Which routing protocol uses the variance command to provide unequal-cost load balancing?
BGP
EIGRP
OSPF*
RIPv2
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When the backup delay is configured, what does the keyword enable-delay modify?
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line goes down before the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line*
the number of seconds that the primary line stays down after the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the secondary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the primary line
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In the following command, what does the number 60 represent? Router(config-if)# backup delay 30 60
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line goes down before the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that the primary line stays down after the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the secondary line*
the number of seconds that elapse after the secondary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the primary line
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Which IOS command is used to specify an interface for backup?
router(config)# interface backupinterface-type number
router(config)# backup interfaceinterface-type number
router(config-if)# backup interfaceinterface-type number*
router(config-if)# interface backupinterface-type number
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Which set of commands will configure dialer watch on RTRA to watch for the Ethernet networks on RTR D?
RTRA(config-if)#dialer watch-list 1 ip 172.10.10.0RTRA(config-if)#dialer watch-list 1 ip 172.10.20.0
RTRA(config)#dialer watch-group 2 ip 172.10.10.0 255.255.255.0RTRA(config)#dialer watch-group 2 ip 172.10.20.0 255.255.255.0
RTRA(config-if)#dialer watch-group 1 ip 172.10.10.0RTRA(config-if)#dialer watch-group 1 ip 172.10.20.0
RTRA(config)#dialer watch-list 2 ip 172.10.10.0 255.255.255.0*RTRA(config)#dialer watch-list 2 ip 172.10.20.0 255.255.255.0
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When configuring dialer watch, why is it advantageous to configure a small value for the dialer idle-timeout command?
The router should periodically check whether the primary link has been re-established at the expiration of each idle timeout.*
The router can quickly use the backup link for other profiles if no interesting traffic is traversing it.
The router should activate the backup link for short durations to check for incoming traffic at the expiration of each idle. timeout.
The router can use the backup link for load sharing if the primary link returns at the expiration of the idle timeout.
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Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTR A will select the path A-B-E as well as the lowest cost path A-C-E to Network X?
RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1*RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1RTRA(config-router)# neighbor RTRC 20
RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1RTRA(config-router)# neighbor RTRB 10
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When using OSPF, what happens to the traffic traveling from RTR A to RTR B when both lines are up?
The traffic will be load-balanced.
All traffic will travel over the path with the higher cost.
The traffic will travel over both paths.
All traffic will travel over the path with the lower cost.*
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Which dial backup IOS commands are used to define the period of time to wait before the backup link is enabled?
Router(config-if)# delay interface {enable-delay never} {disable-delay never}
Router(config-if)# backup delay {enable-delay never} {disable-delay never}*
Router(config)# delay interface {enable-delay never} {disable-delay never}
Router(config)# backup delay {enable-delay never} {disable-delay never}
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In the following configuration, what does the number 2 represent?router(config-if)# backup load 2 1
The primary line will be activated when the backup line falls below a threshold of 2 percent.
The backup line will be activated when the primary line exceeds a threshold of 2 percent.*
The backup line will be activated when the primary line exceeds a threshold of 20 percent.
The primary line will be activated when the backup line falls below a threshold of 20 percent.
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Which technology allows a router to monitor the existence of a specified route in the routing table, and when that route is not present, initiate a dial-up backup link?
floating static route
backup load command
load-threshold command
dialer watch*
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When backup load is configured, what is the purpose of the enable-threshold portion of the following command syntax?Router(config-if)# backup load {enable-threshold never} {disable-load never}
the percentage of the primary line that must be exceeded before the backup line is deactivated
the percentage of the primary line that must be exceeded before the backup line is activated*
the length of time that the primary line must be exceeded before the backup line is deactivated
the length of time that the primary line must be exceeded before the backup line is activated
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RTR A depends on dynamic routing protocol information to route to Network X. Which backup method would activate the ISDN interface to RTR D in the event that Network X is no longer available in the routing table on RTR A?
floating static
dialer watch*
backup load
backup delay
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When OSPF is used and both lines are up in the above diagram, what happens to the traffic that is traveling from RTR A to RTR B?
The traffic will be load-balanced across both links.*
All traffic will travel over the path associated that is with the higher IP address.
All traffic will travel over the path that is associated with the lower IP address.
The traffic will be unequally load-shared across the links depending on the physical line attributes.
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CCNP 2: Remote Access Chapter 7

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What kind of Frame Relay traffic shaping does the following Map Class command define, when applied to an interface?ROUTA(config) #map-class frame-relay BECNROUTA(config-map-class) #frame-relay adaptive-shaping becnROUTA(config-map-class) #exit
Defines the average rate, in bits per second, that are allowed on VCs associated with the map class.
Defines the peak rate, in bits per second, that are allowed on VCs associated with the map class.
Defines a dynamically fluctuating rate at which the router sends packets.x
Defines a static rate, in bits per second, that are allowed on VCs associated with the map class.
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What is used to set the peak and average rates for individual VCs?
Frame Relay access list
Frame Relay priority list
Frame Relay map classx
Frame Relay queue list
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Which type of network can provide multiple levels of bandwidth and service?
circuit-switched
dial-up networking
packet-switchedx
dail-on-demand
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In which portion of the Frame Relay header are the FECN and BECN bits located?
Q.921 header
ethernet header
Q.922 headerx
Q.931 header
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Which Frame Relay term describes a network where the sum of the CIRs on all the VCs exceeds the access line speed?
excess burst
discard eligibility
excess-information rate
oversubscriptionx
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Which Frame Relay traffic shaping type allows configuration of a peak rate to limit outbound traffic?
traffic shaping using queuing mechanisms
adaptive enforcement based on BECNs
adaptive enforcement based on FECNs
rate enforcement on a per-VC basisx
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Which Frame Relay traffic management method allows for granularity in the prioritization of traffic?
adaptive enforcement based on BECNs
traffic shaping using queuing mechanismsx
rate enforcement on a per-VC basis
adaptive enforcement based on FECNs
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Which three are considered frame relay traffic management tools? (Choose three.)
rate enforcement on a per-VC basisx
traffic shaping using queuing mechanismsx
adaptive shaping based on route filtering
rate enforcement on a per-BECN basis
adaptive shaping based on BECNsx
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Which Frame Relay traffic-shaping command defines rate enforcement parameters?
frame-relay traffic-rate 9600 18000x
frame-relay traffic-rate 18000 9600
frame-relay adaptive-shaping 9600 18000
frame-relay adaptive-shaping 18000 9600
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What does it mean when a service provider allows the customer to purchase a CIR of 0?
The provider will guarantee all throughput.
The provider will not guarantee any throughput.x
The CIR will be defined at a later time.
The service will be used to provide a bandwidth analysis.
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Which command enables Frame Relay traffic shaping on an interface?
frame-relay map-class
traffic-shaping frame-relay
traffic-shaping
frame-relay traffic-shapingx
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What does the term excess information rate define in Frame Relay traffic-management terminology?
the occurrence of congestion
the sum of all the CIRs on all the virtual circuits
the rate that the frame relay switch agrees to transfer data
the maximum bandwidth that is available to the customerx
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Which field in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command will provide the current committed burst size?
CIR
Bcx
Be
BECN
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What is the maximum rate that data can be sent through a Frame Relay network if the local loop is a T1?
768 Kbps
2.048 Mbps
1.544 Mbpsx
64 Kbps
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Which term defines the clock speed of the connection to the Frame Relay cloud?
committed information rate
local access ratex
committed burst
excess information rate
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Which parameter is used to provision network resources and regulate usage?
local access rate
committed information ratex
excess information rate
excess burst
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Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
BECN
DE
FECNx
FCS
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Which command will associate a map-class with a subinterface?
frame-relay traffic shaping
map-class frame-relay
frame-relay classx
encapsulation frame-relay
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What is sent to the source router when a Frame Relay switch recognizes congestion?
an FECN
a BECNx
a Bc
nothing
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Which frame relay traffic shaping feature is effectively creating a virtual time-division multiplexing network?
adaptive enforcement based on BECNs
adaptive enforcement based on FECNs
traffic shaping using queuing mechanisms
rate enforcement on a per-VC basisx
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CCNP 2: Remote Access Chapter 4

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When is a default route normally the only route required on a remote network?
When the remote network is a point-to-point connection.
When the remote network is the next hop.
When the network is a stub network.x
When the remote network does not advertise routes.
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What is the total combined bandwidth available for user data of a standard ISDN BRI line?
64 kbps
128 kbpsx
144 kbps
192 kbps
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The S/T interface utilizes how many wires for transmitting and receiving data?
a two-wire interface
a four-wire interfacex
a six-wire interface
an eight-wire interface
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Which protocol is used to identify and manage different data types for the same individual device connecting to the ISDN network?
LAPB
LAPD
SAPIx
PPP
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What are the minimum steps that should be performed on an ISDN call setup?
setup, call proceeding
setup, call proceeding, connect
setup, connect, connect acknowledge
setup, call proceeding, connect, connect acknowledgex
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Which command set specifies a United States ATT basic BRI switch type on Cisco 2600 series router?
interface bri 0/0isdn switch-type bri-5ess
interface bri 0isdn switch-type basic-nwnet3
interface bri 0/0isdn switch-type basic-nic2
interface bri 0/0xisdn switch-type basic-5ess
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Which command will configure a serial interface for PRI operation, as well as set the number of fixed timeslots that are allocated to this PRI?
isdn switch-type
pri-groupx
interface serial
linecode
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What is the best command to observe signaling events between the router and the ISDN switch?
debug isdn q920
debug isdn q921x
debug isdn q931
debug isdn status
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When PPP encapsulation is configured for ISDN, which command would be used to revert to the default?
encapsulation x25
encapsulation lapb
encapsulation hdlcx
encapsulation cpp
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Which two items are advantages of ISDN over POTS? (Choose two.)
higher speedx
analog connections
faster call setupx
designed for voice traffic
operates at half-duplex only
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Given the above graphic and partial configuration of RTB, what command must be added RTB to ensure that all routers within the EIGPR corporate network will dynamically learn about the 174.24.2.0/24 network?
redistribute staticx
redistribute ppp
default-gateway
passive-interface
ip default-network
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In a provider network, which signaling system is used for call control between the switches?
PSTN
Q.931
SS7x
Q.921
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Which routing protocol is typically selected for a DDR link?
RIPx
IS-IS
OSPF
BGP
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Which ISDN BRI Switch types require the special parameter SPID?
DMS-100 and ATT 5ESS
National-1 and ATT 5ESS
DMS-100 and ISDN-1
DMS-100 and National-1x
ISDN-1 and National-1
ATT 5ESS and ISDN-1
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What is the purpose of the dialer-list command when used with ISDN?
to limit traffic to specific protocols
to define interesting trafficx
to indicate that broadcasts should be forwarded
to limit traffic defined by ACLs
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What happens when SPIDs are necessary but not configured?
Layer-1 initialization fails.
Layer-2 initialization fails.
Layer-3 initialization fails.x
Layer-4 initialization fails.
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Which of the following ISDN standards are associated with Layer 1?
Q.920 and Q.921
I.430 and Q.921
I.430 and I.431x
Q.920 and I.431
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Which protocol governs layer 3 between the TEI and the ISDN switch?
Q.921
LAPD
Q.931x
HDLC
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What is the function of ppp multilink?
activates ppp on several interfaces
activates ppp on both synchronous and asynchronous links
enables several ppp authentication types
provides load balancing over parallel linksx
provides several LCPs during link establishment
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Which steps are ISDN PRI configuration tasks? (Choose three.)
Select PRI or BRI operation.
Specify the T1 or E1 controller and framing type.x
Identify the interface that will act with DDR.x
Select the correct PRI switch type for the router interface.x
Specify the interface for PRI with the interface command.
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After configuring PPP multilink, which Cisco IOS command will allow the configuration of B-channel aggregation?
dialer map load-threshold
dialer load-backup
dialer load-thresholdx
dialer load-interval
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CCNP 2: Remote Access Chapter 6

1
When split-horizon updates are needed to protect against routing loops, what is the recommended Frame Relay configuration?

with the ip split-horizon command

with a full mesh

with subinterfaces

as a star by using a partial mesh*

with the ip unnumbered interface command



2
The Frame Relay LMI includes support for which items? (Choose three.)

a keepalive mechanism*

a status mechanism*

local addressing

a multicast mechanism*

a unicast mechanism



3
A Cisco router is configured with the command encapsulation frame-relay on an interface. If both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment are installed at the destination, what is required to ensure communication with the non-Cisco equipment?

they must selectively configure encapsulation-type per DLCI*

they must use dynamic configuration

they must use Inverse ARP

they must use LMI type q933



4
Which Frame Relay network topology provides a multipoint PVC connection by using a single interface?

bus

partial mesh

full mesh

Star*



5
Which command displays the LMI traffic statistics that show the number of status messages that are exchanged between the local router and the Frame Relay switch?

show interfaces serial

show frame-relay pvc

show frame-relay map

show frame-relay lmi*



6
Which functions does the broadcast keyword provide when it is used with the frame-relay map command? (Choose three.)

forwards broadcasts when multicasting is enabled

forwards broadcasts when multicasting is not enabled*

simplifies the configuration of OSPF for broadcast networks

provides regular routing-table updates*

simplifies the configuration of OSPF for nonbroadcast networks*



7
What information is already known by the router with Inverse ARP?

Layer 3 IP address and the DLCI

Layer 2 DLCI*

MAC address and DLCI

Layer 3 IP address



8
Which possible PVC states will LMI report as the status of a configured PVC? (Choose three.)

listening

Active*

stopped

Inactive*

Deleted*

down



9
When does a Frame Relay map need to be created manually?

the DLCI-to-Layer 3 address table overflows

multicast is used in the Frame Relay environment

support for LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP are absent*

Inverse ARP is manually configured



10
Which protocol is a signaling standard between the DTE and the Frame Relay switch?

DLCI

LCI

LMI*

FRAD



11
Which command can be used to configure the Frame Relay circuit number into a router?

frame-relay map 05QHD101545-080TCOM-002

frame-relay circuit 05QHD101545-080TCOM-002

frame-relay interface 05QHD101545-080TCOM-002

description Circuit 05QHD101545-080TCOM-002*



12
What is the connection between the customer and the service provider known as when using Frame Relay?

DTE

DCE

NNI

UNI*



13
Which command displays the current map entries and information about the connections?

show interfaces serial

show frame-relay pvc

show frame-relay map*

show frame-relay lmi



14
Which technology advancement makes Frame Relay the preferred replacement for X.25?

connection-oriented data-link technology

error-free digital transmission*

windowing and retransmission mechanisms

comprehensive error correction



15
What is the most popular Frame Relay topology?

bus

full mesh

star or hub and spoke*

partial mesh


16
Which command is required for all point-to-point subinterfaces?

ip unnumbered interface

frame-relay interface-dlci*

frame-relay map

ip split-horizon



17
Which issue is critical to a partial mesh NBMA Frame Relay network design?

broadcasts

multicasts

split-horizon updates

routing updates*



18
To configure basic Frame Relay using Inverse ARP and LMI autosensing, which two tasks should be accomplished? (Choose two.)

configure a Frame Relay map

configure a Layer 3 address*

configure a Layer 2 address (DLCI)

set the encapsulation type to Frame Relay*



19
What identifies the Frame Relay virtual circuit?

FRAD

DCE

LCI

DLCI*



20
When would an SVC be used?

for frequent and consistent data transfer

for a permanently established connection

for sporadic data transfer*

for secure data transfer

CCNP: BSI Chapter 8 Answer

1.Which statement is true about the IPv6 prefix ff00::/8?

The link-local prefix ff00::/8 specifies any addresses which are used only in software.

The link-local prefix ff00::/8 specifies all addresses which are valid on the local physical link.

XThe multicast prefix ff00::/8 is used for all multicast addresses.

The broadcast prefix ff00::/8 is used for all broadcast addresses.


2.Which IPv6 address is analogous to a private IP address using IPv4?

Xsite local

any cast

link local

NLA ID


3.Which two hexadecimal strings can be used to represent the following IPv6 address: 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B? (Choose two.)

X2031:0:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B

2031:0000:130F::::09C0:876A:130B

X2031:0:130F::09C0:876A:130B

2031::130F::09C0:876A:130B

2031:130F:09C0:876A:130B


4.What are the three types of IPv6 addresses? (Choose three.)

Xunicast

network

Xanycast

Xmulticast

broadcast

host


5.Which dual-stack IPv4 and IPv6 configuration statement is true?

The default MTU value must be decreased by 20 bytes to accommodate the IPv6 header.

The default MTU value must be increased by 20 bytes to accommodate the IPv6 header.

The ipv6 enable interface configuration command is required.

XThe ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command is required.


6.What are the two most common techniques to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose two.)

encapsulated IPv4 headers

Inter-Site Algorithm Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP)

GRE tunnels

Xdual stack

XIPv6-to-IPv4 tunnels

IPng tunneling


7.What are two OSPFv3 LSAs that are not available in OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

Xlink LSAs

interarea prefix LSAs for ABRs

interarea router LSAs for ASBRs

network LSAs

Xintra-area prefix LSAs


8.Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are both dual-stack routers that run IPv4 and IPv6. The connection between router A and router B is IPv4 only. How will the packet be formatted as it traverses the link between router A and router B?

1. IPv4 tag 2. IPv6 header 3. IPv6 data

1. IPv6 tag 2. IPv4 header 3. IPv4 data

1. IPv4 header 2. IPv6 data 3. IPv6 header

1. IPv6 header 2. IPv6 data 3. IPv4 header

X1. IPv4 header 2. IPv6 header 3. IPv6 data

1. IPv6 header 2. IPv4 header 3. IPv4 data


9.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the command ipv6 ospf cost 20?

The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) will not use this interface unless all other interfaces go down.

The cost number is used in the designated router election.

OSPFv3 will prefer this link over links with a lower cost.

The IPv6 priority must be configured before this command is entered.

XThe cost of sending a packet on this interface, expressed in the link state metric, is 20.


10.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the command ipv6 ospf priority 20?

HSRP will not use this interface unless all other interfaces go down.

GBLP will not use this interface unless all other interfaces go down.

XThe priority number is used in the designated router election.

OSPFv3 will prefer this link over links with a lower priority.

The IPv6 priority must be configured before configuring the OSPF cost.


11.Which statement is true of IPv6 and OSPFv3?

The default route is expressed as a prefix with length 64.

The default route is expressed as a prefix with length 128.

XType 3 and type 9 LSAs carry all IPv6 prefix information.

Type 2 and type 3 LSAs carry all IPv6 prefix information.


12.Which statement about OSPFv3 LSAs is true?

XRouter LSAs contain only 32-bit IDs.

Link local LSAs are flooded throughout an OSPF area.

Area LSAs are flooded throughout an OSPF autonomous system.

Intra-area prefix LSAs have link-local flooding scope.


13.Stateless autoconfiguration enables which IPv6 feature?

use of a thick-client approach

DHCP-lite

capability of devices to connect to the network by the use of DHCP servers

Xcapability of devices to connect to the network without any configuration or without the use of a DHCP server

use of a thin-client approach

capability of devices to automatically assign themselves a hybrid IPv4 / IPv6 address


14.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

The command tunnel mode ipv6ip enables NAT-Protocol Translation (NAT-PT), which is a translation mechanism that sits between an IPv6 network and an IPv4 network.

XThe tunnel mode ipv6ip command enables the manual IPv6 overlay tunnel.

This configuration is an example of an automatic 6to4 tunnel.

This configuration is an example of an Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP) overlay tunnel.

This configuration uses the reserved prefix 2001::/16 to allow an IPv4 Internet-connected site to create and use a /48 IPv6 prefix based on a single globally routable/reachable IPv4 address.


15.Which three IPv6 addresses are the same but expressed in a different format? (Choose three.)

X0123:0078:0000:0000:9ABC:0000:0000:DEF0

0000.0123.0078::9ABC::DEF0

123.0078::9ABC::DEF0

X123:78:0:0:9ABC:0:0:DEF0

0123:0078:0000::9ABC:0000:0000:DEF

X123:78::9ABC:0:0:DEF0

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer

Tema 1

1 Which of the following modulation techniques offers more speed in a WLAN?

DSSS

FHSS

X OFDM

OSDF



2 In a large WLAN, what is the function of multiple APs?

X to allow mobile users to move throughout the WLAN

to provide direct user to user connection

to provide connection between multiple switches

to provide connection between multiple VLANs



3 What are the four main requirements for a WLAN solution? (Select four.)

X high availability

cost

X scalability

ease of implementation

X open architecture

X manageability



4 Which IEEE standard contains the specifications for WLANs?

802.3

802.5

X 802.11

802.12





5 Which device is represented by the symbol in the graphic?

wireless bridge

X wireless AP

wireless switch

wireless VLAN



6 When designing a WLAN, what must be completed before deployment decisions are made?

site design

X site survey

site analysis

site inspection

site review









7 Which type of wireless transmission usually requires a government license?

X microwave

infrared

radio frequency

ultraviolet



8 Which type of media is shown in the graphic?

X coaxial

fiber optic

ScTP

STP

UTP





9 Which type of media is shown in the graphic?

coaxial

X fiber optic

ScTP

STP

UTP



10 Why is the direct sequence spread spectrum modulation technique ideal for data communications?

It spreads a transmission signal over a narrow range of radio frequencies so there is minimal loss.

It splits the radio signal into multiple smaller sub-signals that are transmitted at different frequencies to achieve high throughput.

X It is less susceptible to radio noise and creates little interference.

It reduces interference because it is only affected if two signals are transmitting at the same frequency at the same time.



11 Why is microwave a less desirable solution than radio wave transmission in wireless bridge applications? (Select four.)

X Equipment cost is typically high.

X A government license is usually required.

Transmission rates are unreliable in any weather.

X Rain, fog, or snow can significantly reduce performance.

The network is very difficult to maintain.

X The network tends to be point-to-point.



12 What is the maximum throughput that can be achieved by IEEE 802.11a compliant products?

10 Mbps

11 Mbps

X 54 Mbps

100 Mbps





13 At 2.4 GHz, which transmission speed can be delivered by IEEE 802.11b compliant devices?

up to 10 Mbps

X up to 11 Mbps

up to 54 Mbps

up to 100 Mbps







14 On Cisco wireless PC cards, which power mode provides the best connectivity option to the WLAN?

X CAM

FastPSP

PSP

CAD



15 What is the purpose of the Cisco Aironet 350 Series Workgroup Bridge (WGB)?

to connect remote LANs over 40 km or 25 miles

X to connect up to eight Ethernet-enabled clients to a WLAN

to extend the range of the wireless signal beyond 40 km or 25 miles

to connect two or more networks typically located in different buildings



16 Which technological and strategic developments assisted in the widespread acceptance of wireless technology? (Select three.)

increase in cost of fiber-optic and copper installations

X adoption of IEEE 802.11 standards

X data rates commensurate with wired networks

increase in compliance regulations in Ethernet-based networks

X increased security



17 Which types of transmission medium are available for use by WLANs? (Select two.)

fiber-optic

X infrared light

UTP

X radio frequencies

STP



18 In an 802.11 compliant WLAN, what is the best way to avoid radio signal interference?

reposition antennas

X change channels

change the throughput options

reduce the power levels of the wireless devices





19 Which AP feature makes firmware upgrades and configuration changes much easier?

nonvolatile CAM

removable radio transceiver

hot swappable IEEE 802.11 chips

X nonvolatile FLASH ROM





20 Which device is represented by the symbol in the graphic?

X wireless bridge

wireless AP

wireless switch

wireless VLAN







Tema 2



1 Which standard does the IEEE 802.15 describe?

Wireless LAN (WLAN)

Broadband Wireless Access (BBWA)

Integrated Services LAN (ISLAN)

X Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN)



2 In the 802 Reference Model, which connection services does the LLC provide for the upper layer protocol (ULP)? (Select three.)

acknowledged multicast

X unacknowledged connectionless

acknowledged broadcast

X acknowledged connection-oriented

X acknowledged connectionless



3 What is the frequency range of operation in the 802.11a standard for WLANs?

2.4 GHz

11 GHz

X 5 GHz

5.5 GHz



4 In addition to faster speeds, what is the benefit of the 802.11g WLAN standard?

X It provides interoperability among and between all WLAN speeds working at the 2.4 GHz frequency eliminating the need for a complete equipment upgrade.

It provides interoperability between 5.5 Mbps and 54 Mbps WLAN speeds at 5 GHz thus allowing for compatibilty with legacy systems and new devices.

It uses the CCK waveform which offers much higher speeds, greater ranges, and better tolerance of multipath echoes which are common to internal building applications.

It uses a hybrid of OFDM for slow data rates and CCK for fast data rates allowing both waveforms to coexist on the same WLAN.



5 Which layers of the OSI model are primarily supported by the 802.11 standard? (Select two.)

X Layer 1

X Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 5

Layer 6



6 What is a major advantage of the 802.11g standard for WLANs?

It achieves data rates in the range of 5.5 Mbps to 11 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency range.

X It achieves data rates up to 54 Mbps in the 2.4 GHz frequency range.

It achieves data rates up to 54 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency range.

It is an archaic protocol that is rarely used.









7 What is the benefit of using Complementary Code Keying (CCK)?

In the 802.11a standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 1 Mbps to 2 Mbps.

X In the 802.11b standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 2 Mbps to 11 Mbps.

In the 802.11b standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 11 Mbps to 54 Mbps.

In the 802.11g standard, it is used to maintain peak data rates of 54 Mbps.



8 What is the best way to get specific software drivers for Cisco wireless adapter cards?

Order them directly from a Cisco retailer.

X Download them from the CCO site.

Purchase them at any computer retail store.

They are already installed on portable devices.



9 What is the primary function of Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapters, also referred to as client adapters?

to connect a wireless device to the wired infrastructure providing a common DS

to provide communication between fixed, portable, and mobile devices

to transfer data packets through the wired infrastructure

X to transfer data packets through the wireless infrastructure



10 What are the four modulation formats and data rates specified for the High Rate PHY? (Select four.)

differential quadrature convolutional coding (DQCC) mode for 2 Mbps

Xdifferential binary phase shift keying (DBPSK) modulation for 1 Mbps

X packet binary convolutional coding (PBCC) mode for enhanced performance

X differential quadrature phase shift keying (DQPSK) modulation for 2 Mbps

compensatory differential code keying (CDCK) modulation scheme for 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps

X complementary code keying (CCK) modulation scheme for 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps



11 In the 802.11 standard, which mechanism provides security services for the WLAN?

Wired Equivalent Protocol

Wireless Ethernet Protocol

Wireless Ethernet Privacy

X Wired Equivalent Privacy



12 Distributed Coordination Function, the fundamental access method of the IEEE 802.11 MAC, uses which type of media access?

Xcarrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance

carrier sense multiple access with collision detection

contention-free access

carrier sense multiple access with collision delay









13 In addition to physically installing the client adapter card into the wireless station, what is needed for functionality of the card?

a universal client adapter software driver

an interoperability software patch

a client adapter driver with its corresponding AP driver

X a client adapter software driver specific to the OS



14 What does IEEE 802.16 standardize?

X Broadband Wireless Access

Cable-TV Based Broadband Communication Network

Wireless LANs

Wireless Personal Area Networks



15 Where does IR PHY operate?

X indoor environments only

indoor and outdoor environments

outdoor environments only

well-lit environments only



16 What is orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) and how is it used in the 802.11a standard?

A technique that allows short bursts of data to be transmitted on a narrow frequency band and then change to another frequency to continue the data transmission

X A technique that divides a communications channel into a number of equally-spaced frequency bands and reduces multipath interference

A technique that allows two or more channels of information to be transmitted at the same time by allocating a different time interval for the transmission of each frequency channel and eliminating multipath interference

A technique that enables a signal to be transmitted across a frequency band that is much wider than the minimum bandwidth required by the information signal thus reducing multipath interference



17 What is the IEEE standard for WLANs?

802.5

803.3

802.10

X 802.11



18 What are the three non-overlapping IEEE 802.11b High Rate operating channels used in North America?

1, 3, 11

1, 3, 13

X 1, 6, 11

2, 6, 11

2, 7, 13






--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Tema 3

1 What are two sine waves that differ by 360 degrees called?



differential waves

orthogonal waves

X in-phase waves

equivalent waves



2 What metric unit is used to measure energy?

Watt

Ampere

X Joule

Volt



3 An antenna is rated at 7.14 dBi. What is the corresponding dBd rating?

2

3

X 5

10



4 In DSSS technology, each data bit becomes a chipping sequence. How many chips per bit are used by the IEEE 802.11 standard?

X 11

12

13

15



5 Which two statements describe power? (Choose two.)

the ability to do work

X energy transferred per unit time

X joule per second

ampere per volt



6 What is it called when an EM wave spreads or bends around an obstacle in its path?

reflection

X diffraction

scattering

refraction



7 What does gain refer to in WLANs?

The amount of increase in coverage area of an RF signal added by the proper downtilt of the antenna.

The amount of increase in energy that proper cabling adds to an RF signal.

The total amount of energy produced by the radio, amplifier, and antenna in an RF signal.

X The amount of increase in energy that an antenna adds to an RF signal.









8 If a device has a power output of 1000 mW, which rating would that convert to in dBm?

10

20

X 30

50



9 How many degrees must two sine waves differ by to be in phase? (Select two.)

X 0 degrees

45 degrees

90 degrees

120 degrees

270 degrees

X 360 degrees



10 What is the process of recovering transmitted information from the carrier frequency?

modulation

X demodulation

decoding

sampling



11 What is one milliwatt equal to? (Select two.)

X 0 dBm

1/100 Watt

X 1/1000 Watt

10 dBm



12 What would be the result if two waves of the same frequency arrive at an antenna exactly out of phase?

There is no effect because the antenna will only receive one wave at a time.

X The waves will cancel each other out.

The polarization of the wave will change from vertical to horizontal.

The frequency of the resulting wave will be exactly double that of the initial wave.



13 Where must the EIRP measurement be made in an RF system?

radio output

AP output

cable output

X antenna output



14 In the U.S., the FCC sets the 802.11b WLAN maximum power levels at 36 dBm EIRP. What is the maximum power levels in countries regulated by ETSI?

X 20 dBm

25 dBm

30 dBm

35 dBm

36 dBm





15 What is the impact on antenna size when higher frequencies are used?

The required antenna size increases.

X The required antenna size decreases.

There is no change in required antenna size.

The antenna size is not related to the frequency level.



16 Why is OFDM effective in preventing interference between transmitting signals?

X The subcarriers are orthogonal to each other.

The subcarriers are perpendicular to each other.

The receiver and transmitter are synchronized.

It uses low data rate streams.

It divides each high-speed carrier into 54 subcarriers.



17 What are two units of measurement used to quantify the power gain in antennas? (Select two.)

X dBd

dBm

X dBi

dW



18 Multipath interference is usually identified by which of the following? (Select two.)

high signal quality levels

x poor signal quality levels

X high RF signal strength

low RF signal strength



19 Which phenomenon could be the difference between a successful and a failing WLAN implementation?

X reflection

diffraction

scattering

refraction



20 What are important features to consider when selecting the most effective antenna for receivers and transmitters? (Select two.)

diffraction

data throughput

X launch effect

X polarization

scattering



21 What is true about the channels or bands of frequencies used by DSSS? (Select three.)

X Each channel or band of frequencies is 22 MHz wide.

X The frequencies are grouped into 11 different channels in the United States.

Each channel or band of frequencies is 20 MHz wide.

Channels 1, 6, and 10 are the nonoverlapping channels used in the United States.

X Channels should be colocated only if the channel numbers are at least five apart.

Center frequencies in each channel are only 6 MHz apart.



22 Which formula describes the relationship between energy (E), power (P), and time (t)?

X P = DE / Dt

E = P / Dt

P = E + 1/2(t)2

P = DE * t



23 In the formula dB = 10 log10(Pfinal/Pref), what does Pref represent?

amount of decibels

delivered power after some process occurs

X original power

saved power before some process takes place

incremental energy



24 In OFDM, how many of the 52 subchannels are used for error correction?

3

X 4

5

6

7

8



25 When a ray of light traveling in one medium enters a second medium and is not perpendicular to the surface of this second medium, it bends. Which term describes this phenomenon?

reflection

diffraction

scattering

X refraction



26 What modulation technique is used by Cisco Aironet access points to transmit data at 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps?

FHSK

BPSK

WDSK

QPSK

X CCK



27 Which type of bandwidth, as measured in bps, measures how much information can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time?

analog

wireless

X digital

electrical



28 Which phenomenon typically results in the redirection of incoming wave energy into directions that are not intended?

propagation

diffraction

X scattering

refraction




--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Tema 4



1 What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?

X to feed traffic into the network, perform network entry control, and provide other edge services

to provide access to various parts of the internetwork, as well as to access services

to provide an optimized and reliable transport structure and to forward traffic at very high speeds

to provide a high-speed switching backbone



2 What is an advantage of using the 802.11 standard?

X Many laptops are shipped with compatible NIC preinstalled.

The existing network configuration easily accepts 802.11 devices.

There are no problems with reflection of the signal.

Higher speeds are achieved with no extra configuration on 802.11 devices.



3 Which open standard operating system is licensed for use in many mobile computing devices?

X Symbian

MS DOS

Windows XP

OS/2



4 Which factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Select two.)

X consistent IP scheme

routing protocols

existing wired clients

X coverage

position of MDF



5 What is the maximun output of the Cisco Aironet 2.4 GHz radio?

25 mW

50 mW

75 mW

X 100 mW



6 What must be done to convert a desktop computer from wired access to wireless access?

Configure the infrared port so that it is on.

Update the network client.

Change the PCMCIA card.

X Change the NIC.



7 At which OSI layer or layers does a wireless AP operate?

Layer 1

X Layers 1 and 2

Layer 2

Layers 2 and 3

8 What is the most common device used in a wireless LAN?

access point

wireless bridge

workgroup bridge

X computer workstation



9 What is the recommended maximum distance that can be bridged between a Cisco 350 access point and any wireless client?

0.8 km (0.5 miles)

X 1.6 km (1.0 mile)

2.4 km (1.5 miles)

3.2 km (2.0 miles)

8.0 km (5.0 miles)



10 To provide extended coverage from the wired backbone, what is the required percentage of overlap between an AP on the backbone and a wireless repeater?

15%

25%

X 50%

75%



11 What are the two critical steps for a good WLAN deployment? (Select two.)

Segment the network.

X Determine the placement of access points or bridges.

X Map out the channel assignments.

Lay out the existing wired network.

Determine the placement of MDF and IDFs.



12 Which OSI layer is associated with a router?

Layer 1

Layer 2

X Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 5

Layer 6



13 What is the acyronym given to the area of RF coverage provided by one access point?



X BSS

ESS

SOHO

BSDU



14 Which series of Cisco access points support both 802.11a and 802.11b standards?

1100

X 1200

1300

1400









15 Which device is used in an environment that needs extended coverage but backbone access is not practical or is unavailable?

wireless Windows CE device

wireless bridge

X wireless repeater

wireless Workgroup Bridge



16 What is a wireless network topology that consists of two or more BSSs connected by a common distribution system?

basic infrastructure

base station DSL

peer-to-peer

base station dialup

X extended infrastructure



17 The International Bank of the Philippines plans to connect two of its branches which are 16.37 km (10.23 miles) apart. Which type of Cisco antenna would be suitable if the bank wants to use a wireless connection between the two branches?

patch wall antenna

Yagi mast antenna

rubber dipole antenna

X solid dish antenna



18 At which layer of the Cisco three layer hierarchical internetworking model should there be no network policy implementation?

user

X core

backbone

distribution

campus



19 What type of antenna is typically used at the main site to provide multipoint bridging?

directional antenna

X omnidirectional antenna

patch wall antenna

pillar mount antenna



20 Which term describes the ability to locate more than one access point in the same area to increase the available bandwidth for all users?



functionality

X scalability

adaptability

manageability



21 In the United States, how many nonoverlapping channels are there for the 802.11b standard?

X three

four

seven

eight



22 According to the 802.11b standard, what is the longest recommended distance between two LANs when using point-to-point wireless bridges?

16 km (10 miles)

24 km (15 miles)

X 40 km (25 miles)

48 km (30 miles)

80 km (50 miles)



23 What are the three basic types of handheld devices? (Select three.)

scan-based

X key-based

X pen-based

X vehicle-mount

wall-mount



24 At which OSI layer do antennas operate?

X Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4




--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Tema 5



1 Which command will erase the configuration files stored in NVRAM? (Select two.)



ap# erase configuration

X ap# erase startup-config

ap# erase running-config

ap# erase flash

X ap# erase start

ap# erase run



2 When configuring an AP through the IOS CLI, which keystroke recalls the most recent entry in the command buffer and pastes it into the command line?

Esc-Y

X Ctrl-Y

Tab

Ctrl-H

Esc-P









3 Which of the following commands are used to set the AP output power to 20 mW and the data rate to 11 Mbps only? (Select two.)

AP(config-if)# power 20

X AP(config-if)# power local 20

AP(config-if)# power client 20

AP(config-if)# speed 11.0

AP(config-if)# speed basic-11.0

X AP(config-if)# speed basic-11.0 1.0 2.0 5.5



4 Which of the following are true when setting the IP address and SSID of the AP? (Select three.)

The SSID can be assigned without setting the IP address.

X The IPSU can be used to assign the SSID.

X The PC used to set up the SSID and IP address must have an IP address of its own.

X The IPSU can be used to change the IP address again, but only if the access point is reset to default values.

The IPSU can only be used to change the SSID for the 5GHz radio when an access point is operating in dual-mode.



5 When configuring the AP Radio Port Hardware setup page, which settings are recommended in situations where communication is poor and many client devices are associating with the access point?

low fragment threshold and high RTS threshold

high fragment threshold and high RTS threshold

high fragment threshold and low RTS threshold

X low fragment threshold and low RTS threshold



6 Which command is used to set the parent AP for a repeater AP?

AP(config)# parent 10.0.0.1

AP(config-if)# parent 1 10.0.0.1

X AP(config-if)# parent 1 abcd.1234.ab12

AP(config)# parent abcd.1234.ab12



7 On the Cisco AP 1200 series, what is the name of the 802.11a radio interface?

interface dot11radio 0

X interface dot11radio 1

interface dot11radio a

interface 802.11a radio



8 What are valid methods of configuring an AP? (Select three.)

X web browser

DNS server

X console port

auxiliary port

X Telnet session









9 When configuring the access point, which Ethernet page contains information about the operational status of the Ethernet port?

Ethernet Port

Ethernet Identification

Ethernet Hardware

Ethernet Filters

X Ethernet Advanced



10 Which CLI command lists information about Cisco APs located in the same Layer 2 domain as the current AP?

X AP# show dot11 adjacent-ap

AP# show dot11 network-map

AP(config)# dot11 network-map 30

AP# show dot11 associations statistics

AP# show dot11 associations



11 What does a blinking amber status LED indicate in a 1200 series access point?

no client devices associated

no power

transmitting or receiving radio packets

X general warning



12 What is needed by the Cisco IP Setup Utility (IPSU) to learn the current IP address of an access point?

SSID of the AP

X MAC address of the AP

system name of the AP

domain name of the AP



13 What is important information that should be gathered before setting up an access point? (Select three.)

X system name

Xservice set identifier

maximum number of wireless clients

X SNMP community name

MAC address from the PC used to configure the access point



14 While configuring an interface on a Cisco 1200 series AP, the system administrator attempts to use the keystroke Ctrl+E to move the cursor to the end of the line without success. Why is the command not working?

This command only works in router IOS and not AP IOS.

The command to move the cursor to the end of the line is ESC E not Ctrl+E.

X Advanced editing features on the AP have been disabled.

This command is only active in global config mode not interface config mode.











15 How does an AP behave when the receive antenna is set to diversity?

X It will use the antenna that receives the best signal.

It will use both antennas at the same time.

It will round-robin between the two antennas.

The AP will always use one antenna to transmit and the other to receive.



16 In the Management System Setup Page, which AP Radio pages are available for configuration? (Select four.)

X Radio Port Link

X Radio Identification

X Radio Hardware

Radio Testing

X Radio Advanced

Radio Security



17 What must be enabled to use load balancing and TKIP on a Cisco AP?

Advanced AP Features

X Cisco Aironet 802.11 Extensions

WAP

Data Beaconing

Public Secure Data Forwarding



18 An IP address needs to be set on a Cisco 1200 series AP. Which interface should be associated with the IP address?

dot11 radio interface

ethernet interface

X bridge virtual interface

It does not matter



19 What is the default IP address of a Cisco 1200 series AP?

X 10.0.0.1

127.0.0.1

172.27.20.1

192.168.2.1



20 Which of the following are true about the SSID (Select two.)?

The SSID is always a 32-bit long alphanumeric string.

X The SSID is case sensitive.

X The SSID is, by default, sent out as a beacon on the WLAN.

The SSID is an effective method of WLAN security.



21 Using the CLI, which global configuration mode command enables CDP on a Cisco AP?

cdp protocol enable

cdp enable

X cdp run

cdp start









22 What is the result of the command sequence illustrated? (Select two.)

X The SSID for the 2.4 Ghz radio is changed to frey.

The SSID for the 5 Ghz radio is changed to frey.

The SSID for both the 2.4 Ghz and the 5 Ghz radio is changed to frey.

The privilege level required to set the maximum number of associations is set to 15.

X The maximum number of associations to the SSID is set to 15.

Nothing will happen until the AP is rebooted.



23 What is the default enable password for a Cisco 1200 series AP?

X Cisco

Tsunami

Aironet

Wireless

There is no default enable password.

Class



24 In the displayed serial port settings properties, which of the settings are correct to enable a communications session to be established with a Cisco 1200 series AP? (Select three.)

Bits per second

X Data bits

X Parity

X Stop bits

Flow control



25 Which Cisco access point is shown in the graphic?

X Cisco Aironet 1100

Cisco Aironet 1200

Cisco Aironet 1300

Cisco Aironet 1350



26 When using the GUI interface to configure the Cisco 1200 Series AP for Hot Standby, what is the role of the monitored AP?

Access Point Root (No Fallback)

Access Point Root (Fallback to Repeater)

X Access Point Root (Fallback to Radio Shutdown)

Access Point Root (Fallback to Radio Island)



27 What are ways to return a Cisco AP to its factory default settings? (Select two.)



X Power cycle the AP while holding in the mode button.

Issue the reset command from the privileged mode CLI prompt.

X Click the Reset to Defaults button on the System Configuration screen.

Issue the erase running-config command followed by reload from the privileged mode CLI prompt.






--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Tema 6

1 When setting up two Cisco Aironet 350 bridges for a point-to-point connection, how should the bridges be configured? (Select three.)

System names should be the same for authentication purposes.

X Both bridges should belong to the same network.

X Both bridges should have the same SSID.

X Their roles should be root bridge and non-root bridge without clients.

Their roles should be root bridge in both bridges.



2 Why is bridging one of the most preferred uses of wireless networks? (Select three.)

low equipment costs

X rapid deployment

X high speed connectivity

more efficient encryption

X ease of installation

X no geographical limitation on installation



3 Which mode establishes the parent-child relationship between bridges?

Non-Root Bridge

X Root Bridge

Access Point Repeater



4 When configuring a Cisco Aironet Bridge through its web browser interface, which methods for IP assignment can be selected in the Boot Server Setup Page? (Select two.)

X BOOTP

NVRAM

TFTP

DNS

X DHCP



5 Which Radio Port Configuration page contains the MAC address of the Primary Port?

Root Radio Hardware

Root Radio Address

X Root Radio Identification

Root Radio Advanced



6 In a large WLAN, how many root bridges can exist?

X one

three

five

unlimited



7 When a Cisco Aironet Bridge is configured through the web browser interface, additional routes can be defined in the Routing Setup Page. Which information must be provided for each new route? (Select three.)

DNS server IP address

X destination network

wildcard mask

X gateway

subnet address

X subnet mask



8 Which wireless bridge mode is not covered by 802.11 standards?

access point

non-root bridge

X repeater

non-root bridge without clients



9 To utilize hot standby, which parameters need to be configured? (Select three.)

X Service Set ID (SSID)

IP address for the monitored access point

X MAC address for the monitored access point

Gateway address for the monitored access point

X polling frequency



10 Which bridge configurations prevent communication with wireless clients on the LAN? (Select three.)

Access Point

X Non-Root Bridge without Clients

X Repeater Access Point

Root Bridge

X Site Survey Client



11 In order for wireless clients to attach to a non-root bridge, the non-root bridge must be associated to a root bridge or which other type of bridge?

isolated non-root bridge

workgroup bridge

X another non-root bridge that is associated to a root bridge

workgroup bridge associated to a root bridge



12 When updating firmware through a distributing access point on a WLAN, which requirements must the access points meet? (Select two.)

The access points must be set to Automatically Update firmware.

X The access points must be running firmware that supports the Distribute Firmware feature.

The access points must have their web servers enabled for external firmware updates.

X The access points must have their web servers enabled for external browsing.



13 In the graphic, which bridge pairs are able to communicate with each other?

X bridge pair A

bridge pair B

bridge pair C

all bridge pairs



14 When using a standby access point for redundancy in a WLAN, which parameter on the standby access point should be different from the monitored access point?

SSID

X IP address

default gateway

DNS









15 When setting up the connection shown in the graphic, which configuration aspects should be set to obtain a successful ping between PC1 and PC2? (Select three.)

PPP needs to be enabled on the routers.

X Each router should declare both networks inside the routing protocol, the one on its AP side as well the one on its LAN side.

X Both bridges should belong to the same network.

The network between Bpod1 and R1 should be different than the one between Bpod2 and R2.

X SSIDs should be the same on both bridges.



16 Cisco Aironet bridges operate at which layer of the OSI model?

physical

X data-link

network

transport




--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Tema 7

1 How is dBd converted to dBi?

X add 2.14

subtract 2.14

multiply by 2.14

divide by 2.14

These units are identical.



2 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?

X mast mount

patch wall

solid dish

Yagi mast



3 Which of the following antennas has the lowest gain of 2.15 dBi?

pillar mount

patch wall

Ground Plane

X rubber dipole



4 Why should antennas be installed away from microwave ovens and 2.4 GHz cordless phones?

X These devices can cause interference because they operate on the same frequency range.

These devices can absorb wireless energy.

The wireless transmissions can prevent these devices from working.

These devices can cause dangerous voltages to develop in the wireless antenna.









5 On level ground, at what distance does the line of sight disappear due to Earth curvature?

6 km (4 miles)

X 25 km (16 miles)

40 km (25 miles)

50 km (32 miles)



6 In a WLAN, what happens when the length of an antenna cable increases?

multipath interference increases

X coverage range decreases

transmission rate increases

beamwidth potential increases



7 Which of the following statements are true about pillar mount diversity antennas? (Select two.)

X They are designed for indoor use only.

They behave like an isotropic antenna.

X They consist of two antennas in a single package.

They should be mounted parallel to the ground.



8 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?

mast mount

X patch wall

solid dish

Yagi mast



9 Which of the following statements about a Fresnel zone are true? (Select two.)

Its width increases towards each antenna site.

X It is an imaginary ellipsoid that surrounds the straight line path between antennas.

It has its maximum girth at either end.

X It must be kept clear of trees and other obstructions.



10 Which types of bridge antennas are considered directional? (Select three.)

X patch wall

mast mount low gain

mast mount high gain

X Yagi mast

X solid dish



11 Which of the following govern the maximum link distance between antennas? (Select three.)

X maximum available transmit power

X receiver sensitivity

type of data

polarization

X system losses









12 What can be done to improve the Fresnel effect? (Select three.)



X Raise the antenna.

Increase antenna power level.

Add a wireless filter.

X Use a different mounting point for the antenna.

X Remove trees.



13 Which of the following antennas are considered omnidirectional? (Select two.)



X mast mount

patch

Yagi

X rubber dipole

parabolic



14 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?



mast mount

patch wall

X solid parabolic

Yagi mast



15 When using two standard dipole antennas on an AP, which antenna mode should be selected?

The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Automatic.

The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Left Transmit Right Receive.

The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Right Transmit Left Receive.

X The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Diversity.



16 Which are 2.4 GHz Cisco Aironet directional antennas? (Select three.)

X 6 dBi Patch

2.2 dBi Single Dipole

X 13.5 dBi Yagi

X 21 dBi Solid Dish

5.2 dBi Diversity Pillar Omni



17 Which of the following statements describe an isotropic antenna? (Select three.)

It has 2.14 times the gain of a dipole antenna.

It is only manufactured by Cisco Systems.

X It is theoretical only and does not really exist.

X It is used as a reference for all antennas.

X It has a 360 degree vertical and horizontal beamwidth.











18 Which of the following statements are true about Cisco patch antennas? (Select two.)



They are omnidirectional in their radiation pattern.

They are considered isotropic in nature.

X They are used for both indoor and outdoor applications.

X They are available in 6 dBi and 8.5 dBi gains.

The 6 dBi antenna is typically used in European applications.



19 What happens to antenna gain as frequency increases?

X It increases.

It decreases.

It stays the same.

It would depend on the size of the antenna.



20 What is the maximum possible distance between two solid parabolic dish antennas?

20 km (13 miles)

X 40 km (25 miles)

60 km (38 miles)

80 km (50 miles)



21 What is meant by the bandwidth of an antenna?

angle of coverage radiated out by an antenna

X band of frequencies over which the antenna operates

speed of data transmission the antenna can accept

the total width in degrees of the main radiation lobe of the antenna









22 Which term describes the total width in degrees of the main radiation lobe at the angle where the radiated power has fallen below that on the centerline of the lobe by 3 dB (half-power)?

bandwidth

X beamwidth

lobe width

radiation angle



23 Which of the following statements describe dipole antennas? (Select two.)

XThey can be oriented vertically or horizontally.

X They are omnidirectional.

They are used only on access points.

They are formed by an antenna array.



24 Which specifications must be satisfied to use coaxial cable for antenna installation? (Select three.)

X The impedance must be 50 ohms.

The total length must not exceed 6 m.

The cable must be semirigid.

X The total loss at 400 MHz must be 12 dB or less.

X The center conductor of the cable must be at least #14 AWG.

25 What can be done to increase signal level and improve system performance? (Select two.)

X Use a higher gain antenna.

Use a lower gain antenna.

X Use a lower loss cable.

Use a higher loss cable.



26 What is the first thing that should be done when aligning antennas if the received signal level differs from the link-budget calculation by more than 8 dB?

Nothing, this is normal.

X Check the antenna alignment.

Try a higher gain antenna.

Raise the antenna.



27 Which of the following antennas have a beam with 360 degrees in the horizontal plane and 75 degrees in the vertical plane? (Select three.)

patch wall

X ceiling mount

X ceiling mount high gain

Yagi Mast

X rubber dipole




--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Tema 8



1 What is the result of a Denial of Service attack in a WLAN?

Passwords are converted to clear text.

SSIDs are changed in the access points.

X Authorized users are prevented from using services.

Root control of a device is transferred.



2 TKIP enhancements to WEP include which of the following? (Select three.)

functions to defeat brute-force attacks

X a sequencing discipline

X MIC

X elimination for re-keying

CKIP



3 AES uses which encryption algorithm?

Taylor

Rhinehart

X Rijndael

Frey



4 How many VLANS are supported by the AP 1200 series?

8

X 16

32

64





5 Which IEEE standard is used by WPA to allow user authentication in wireless LANs?

802.1i

X 802.1x

802.11c

802.11x



6 Which encryption protocol was adopted as the official government standard by the U.S. Secretary of Commerce in May of 2002?

3DES

WEP

X AES

TKIP



7 What is the WEP key size specified in the 802.11 standard?

256 bit

64 bit and 128 bit

40 bit and 128 bit

X 40 bit



8 Fryco has just acquired Victoria Inc. and has decided to change from the current DES cryptographic algorithm to the more secure AES. What must Fryco do to accomplish this task?

Nothing since AES and DES are completely interchangeable.

All access points must be replaced but no changes are necessary on the client side.

X All access points and NICs will have to be replaced since AES requires a coprocessor in order to function.

Access points and NICs will only require a firmware upgrade to be able to use AES.



9 Which statement describes why the SSID should not be used as a security feature?

SSIDs cannot be changed after initial setup.

SSIDs only use a 40-bit encryption key.

X SSIDs are sent in clear text.

SSIDs are written on the back of the access point.



10 When set to Repeater mode, an AP can associate with how many parent APs?

3

X 4

5

6



11 How might an employee bypass a weak security policy and jeopardize the network security of a company?

Use a personal wireless network card on the company network.

Connect to the Internet.

Change the WEP and SSID on their client.

X Install their personal AP on the company network.









12 Which type of early wireless security involved the use of up to a 32 character ASCII string?

MAC

X SSID

WEP

WAP



13 Why should HTTP management of wireless access points be disabled on a production network?

The use of HTTP generates excess traffic and degrades network performance.

Web based configuration screens are often awkward and have limited functionality.

Web based administration requires a direct console connection to the access point.

X Many vendors have serious flaws in their web server software that can weaken network security.



14 Using RC4, which WLAN security solution fixes the key reuse problem of the WEP algorithm?

AES

3DES

X TKIP

SSID



15 Which type of authentication can be processed with or without the use of WEP keys in an 802.11 environment?

X open

selective

shared key

default



16 Which type of threats originate from someone who has authorized access to the network via an account or physical access to the wire?

external

X internal

structured

unstructured



17 Which security protocol establishes a wireless VPN connection?

X IPSec

PPP

LDAP

CHAP



18 Which device is responsible for sending the RADIUS Access-Challenge to the client in an 802.1X environment?

network adapter

RADIUS server

supplicant

X authenticator





19 Which device is responsible for sending the EAP request to the client in an 802.1X environment?

client

network adapter

X authenticator

RADIUS server



20 Which utility sends false disassociation packets that disconnect 802.11 clients from the access point?

Airsnort

Kismet

X Wlan Jack

NetStumbler



21 Which protocol analyzers can be used to eavesdrop in a WLAN environment? (Select three.)

X AiroPeek

X AirMagnet

Etherpeek Wireless

X Sniffer Wireless

Airdump



22 Which authentication method requires the client and access point to have the same WEP key according to the IEEE 802.11 standard?

open

X shared key

private key

closed



23 Which of the following security methods are included in the 802.1x standard? (Select three.)

X EAP-TLS

EEAP

X LEAP

X PEAP

SEAP



24 Which device could be responsible for authenticating clients on the network in an 802.1x environment?

access point

X RADIUS server

enterprise main database container

switch



25 The exploitation of weak passwords is considered which type of wireless attack?

X Access

DoS

DDoS

Reconnaissance






--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Tema 9

1 As shown in the graphic, what is the status of a signal that falls into the green section when using the Cisco Link Status Meter (LSM) to determine the strength and quality of the RF signal?

poor

fair

good

X excellent



2 In an access point, what are the available encryption choices? (Select three.)

X no encryption

X allow client to specify encryption

matched system encryption

parallel client encryption

X forced encryption



3 What ensures that a mobile user's wireless connection is never interrupted while roaming from access point to access point?

power levels must be maximized

X cells must overlap

frequency levels must be matched

bridges must be properly placed



4 In a wireless LAN, what can be done to extend the coverage area without deploying another access point that is connected to the same broadcast domain?

X Use a second access point in repeater mode.

Use a wireless bridge.

Increase the access point power level.

Use a second access point on a different channel.



5 What are some operating and environmental conditions that need to be considered before installing the WLAN system? (Select three.)

distance between fluorescent lights

X antenna type and placement

X data rates

ceiling height

fuse panels

X line of site



6 What happens when water gets into a coax connector on an antenna?

Nothing happens because coax connectors are waterproof.

X The water will work up through the coax and render it useless.

The water will cause an immediate open in the coax.

The water will cause the coax to rust but it will still be usable.









7 The path loss margin defines how much path interference is acceptable for communication. What is the maximum acceptable fade margin to maintain dependable communication in all weather conditions?

5dB

20dB

15dB

X 10dB



8 What is the default PCMCIA client adapter mode?

X CAM

FastCAM

PSP

FastPSP



9 What is the realistic maximum link speed for 802.11b?

5 Mbps

X 7 Mbps

9 Mbps

11 Mbps



10 In a wireless system, throughput is typically what percentage of the actual data rate?

40% to 50%

X 50% to 60%

60% to 70%

70% to 80%



11 Which client adapter power mode should be selected for clients who switch between AC and DC power?

CAM mode

FastCAM mode

PSP

X FastPSP



12 When documenting site survey information, what should be indicated on a set of drawings or prints? (Select three.)

wall locations

X AP locations

ceiling types

X coverage areas

X cable and electrical requirements



13 Which type of roaming must have good overlap of access points with no holes in coverage?

continuous

seamless

X transparent

virtual









14 Which client adapter mode should be selected when power conservation is not an issue?

X CAM

FastCAM

PSP

FastPSP



15 When using the site survey tool, which mode does not initiate any RF network traffic?

repeater mode

stand-alone mode

X passive mode

active mode

parallel mode



16 When using the site survey tool, a specific mode causes the client adapter to actively send or receive low-level RF packets to and from its associated AP and provides information on the success rate. Which mode accomplishes these functions?

repeater mode

stand-alone mode

passive mode

X active mode

parallel mode



17 A formula is used to determine the height of the antenna in a 2.4 GHz WLAN. This formula adds the mid-path Fresnel zone width at a specific percentage and a numeric value that represents the curvature of the earth. What is the mid-path Fresnel zone percentage that is used?

40%

50%

X 60%

70%



18 Which type of roaming requires a constant IP subnet for the client and precludes the use of mobile IP?

continuous

X seamless

transparent

virtual



19 Which type of analyzer can be used to locate sources of radio frequency interference (RFI)?

digital

analog

X spectrum

spherical







20 Which three are routed protocols? (Select three.)

RIP

X IP

OSPF

EIGRP

X IPX

X Appletalk



21 Which antennas are used in WLANs? (Select three.)

X diversity omni ceiling mount

oval omni ceiling mount

spherical patch

X hemispherical patch

X diversity patch wall mount



22 What provides a network with the best protection from damage caused by a direct lightning strike on an antenna?

surge protector

copper patch cable

lightning arrestor

X fiber optic cabling




--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Tema 10

1 What is created by waves that are 180 degrees out of phase?

shadows

nulls x

ghosts

reflections



2 Which two options should be part of the wireless network design? (Select two.)

network topology x

map of coverage areas x

installation

verification testing



3 Which activities are considered part of the characterization of a network? (Select three.)

identifying standard naming conventions x

investigating architectural and environmental constraints x

documenting installed application packages

documenting the types and lengths of physical cabling x

documenting user names and locations



4 How can an engineer be more efficient in developing a baseline for an existing network? (Select two.)

Gain an understanding of the technical and business goals of the customer. x

Rely on the original baseline measurements from the network installation.

Ask the customer to indicate typical network segments from which they can extrapolate information.

Randomly select and survey 10 percent of the existing network to estimate the baseline.

5 What can be done if the current number of access points provides too little coverage but the addition of another access point would provide too much coverage? (Select three.)

Change the antenna to gain more coverage. x

Arrange the clients to avoid the uncovered area.

Change the power levels on one or more of the access points to change the size of the coverage cells. x

Use a wired connection in the uncovered areas.

Change the antenna to reduce coverage and add more access points. x



6 Why is it important for the site survey to list the location and brand of every breaker box that will power the access points?

x The electrician must be able to easily identify and install the wiring in the correct box

Only certain types of breakers are compatible with access points.

The access points must be within 44 meters (145 feet) of the breaker panel.

The electrician must be able to remotely determine if a specific box is on a dedicated circuit for an access point.



7 Why is it important to conduct a wireless survey with all building doors closed?

to prevent unauthorized people from entering the survey area

to minimize distractions to the survey team

to make certain the building doors do not affect the coverage area x

to more easily determine the exact size of the room



8 A network consisting entirely of fiber optic cabling requires which additional piece of equipment for each access point?

fiber switch

media transceiver x

optical switch

fiber-optic hub



9 What are the advantages of providing a customer with a detailed site survey report? (Select two.)

Potential problem areas can be identified before the installation is started. x

The customer will be able to complete the installation themselves.

Portions of the survey can be provided to the contractors so they can install any necessary cabling. x

The customer can use the survey to contract out the job to a less expensive firm.



10 Why must the site survey report be as detailed as possible? (Select two.)

The surveyor may not be the installer. x

The customer has paid for the information.

The details will provide protection for the customer and for the vendor who does the report. x

The report must ensure the customer fully understands the technology.



11 Which natural phenomenon is responsible for creating RF "shadows" that may cause connectivity issues in a WLAN?




reflection

diffraction x




scattering refraction

12 When should a baseline measurement of an existing network be completed?

over several days x

during the peak utilization period

during the evening when load is at a minimum

only after changes to a network have been completed



13 Why is it important to understand the existing network infrastructure before starting a site survey? (Select two.)

to try to replace the maximum amount of wired network

to make certain that all equipment is compatible

to determine if the design goals of a customer are realistic x

to document potential problems x

to make certain that the protocols used will work with the access points



14 What should be included on a network map? (Select three.)

The exact location of all workstations.

The location of all routers, switches and hubs.

WAN and LAN connections between buildings and between campuses. x

The location of mainframe computers. x

The topology of any firewall security systems. x



15 What follows the implementation phase in the Network Design and Implementation Cycle?

monitoring x

analysis

development

testing



16 Company A has decided to automate their inventory process and must provision their warehouse with wireless access. The warehouse is 137 m (450 ft) by 91 m (300 ft) and contains rows of fully stocked metal shelves. The spacing between the 1.8 m (6 ft) wide rows of shelves is 6.1 m (20 ft). What is the optimal antenna type and placement to provide near 100 percent coverage to this warehouse scenario?

Yagi antennas mounted on wall A aimed down the rows between the shelves. x

Ground Plane antenna mounted in the ceiling in the center of the warehouse.

Dipole antennas mounted in each corner of the warehouse.

Mast antennas mounted in the ceiling between each row.



17 What is the most common media type for LAN installations?

air

multimode fiber optic

UTP x

STP

coaxial



18 What is the most common physical topology used in networks?

bus

star x

ring

mesh



19 Why is it necessary to determine which protocols will be sent over the WLAN?

to reduce traffic by filtering out unnecessary traffic x

to properly configure client machines

to acquire the proper servers

to select the best network operating system



20 What is a required feature of all network equipment that is installed in the air return space between the drop ceiling and the real ceiling?

It must have special mounting brackets.

It must be mounted according to federal building codes.

It must be low voltage DC units.

It must be plenum rated. x



21 Which item is considered a testing tool for wireless networking?

spectrum analyzer x

access point

rope

digital camera



22 Which two options are considered part of the WLAN implementation process? (Select two.)

design

configuration x

mapping

verification testing x



23 What are characteristics of firewalls in buildings? (Select three.)

They extend from floor to ceiling. x

They are the outside walls of the building.

They channel the spread of fires to less sensitive areas of the building.

They are composed of concrete, cinderblock or brick. x

They contain no breaks. x



24 Why is it inappropriate to use an adhesive to secure an access point onto a column?

The adhesive can alter the RF signal.

The adhesive may dry out and the access point will fall.

The access point would be destroyed if it had to be removed. x

The adhesive may short out the sensitive electronics in the access point.




--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Tema 11

1 When using the CLI to configure SNMP on an AP, which command sets the system location string?

snmp-server location x

snmp-server community

snmp-location server

snmp-location community









2 Which command can help determine connectivity between devices on a network?

debug

ping x

show

trace



3 The FCC requires professional installation of high gain directional antennas for systems that exceed 36 dBm. How must these systems operate?

multipoint-to-point

point-to-point x

multipoint-to-point

multipoint-to-point and multipoint-to-point



4 Which OSI layer is responsible for placing information on the medium?

transport

network

data link

physical x



5 What is the goal of security management in the ISO Network Management Model?

To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is maintained at an acceptable level.

To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of various versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.

To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on a network can be appropriately regulated.

To control access to network resources according to local guidelines so that a network cannot be disrupted. x



6 Which of the following questions should be answered so that a network administrator is prepared for a network failure? (Select three.)

Is there an accurate physical and logical map of the network? x

Are there filters that are configured on any switches?

Which protocols are being routed? x

Is there a list of all the network protocols that are implemented? x

Are all computer brands compatible?



7 In the ISO Network Management Model, what is the goal of configuration management?

To measure and make available various aspects of network performance so that the network can be maintained at an acceptable level.

To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects on network operation of various versions of hardware and software elements can be tracked and managed. x

To measure network-utilization parameters so that individual or group uses on the network can be regulated appropriately.

To detect, log, notify users of, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network running effectively.





8 Which of the following options can be considered common Layer 1 errors? (Select three.)

improperly configured serial interfaces

broken cables x

transceiver problems x

disconnected cables x

routing protocol not enabled



9 What can be used to determine the distance to a fault in a cable?

cable toner

multimeter

network analyzer

time domain reflectometer x



10 When configuring an AP, which CLI command saves the active configuration to Flash?

copy active-config startup-flash

copy running-config startup-flash

copy running-config startup-config x

copy active-config startup-config



11 A router functions at which layer of the OSI model?

transport

network x

data link physical



12 Which AP CLI configuration command enables visible sequence numbering of system logging messages?

sequence numbers on set sequence number

sequence number service up

service sequence-numbers x



13 Which types of cable can be tested with the Fluke 620 CableMeter? (Select three.)

coaxial x

multimode fiber-optic

single-mode fiber-optic

STP x

UTP x



14 What is the goal of accounting management in the ISO Network Management Model?

To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is maintained at an acceptable level.

To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of various versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.

To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on the network can be appropriately regulated. x

To detect, log, report, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network running effectively.

15 A repeater functions at which layer of the OSI model?

transport

network

data link

physical x



16 A switch functions at which layer of the OSI model?

ransport

network

data link x

physical



17 Which of the following options can be considered Layer 3 errors? (Select three.)

routing protocol not enabled x

disconnected cables

incorrect subnet masks x

incorrect DNS to IP bindings x

intermittent cable connection



18 Most network problems occur at which layer of the OSI model ?

Layer 4

Layer 3

Layer 2

Layer 1 x



19 Which show command displays the system hardware configuration, the software version, the names and sources of configuration files, and the boot image of a router?

show memory

show processes

show protocols

show version x



20 During the installation of a Cisco wireless LAN adapter, a technician experiences difficulty attaching to the wireless LAN. While troubleshooting the problem, the technician wants to check the firmware version on the LAN adapter. Which Windows utility can be used to see if the hardware is functioning properly and will also display the firmware version of the WLAN?

environmental variables

device manager x

device debugger

startup and recovery



21 Installation of a wireless network requires that a technician set an identifier on each device attached to the LAN. What is the terminology that describes this identifier?

LEAP

WLAN

SSID x

WEPT





22 Which type of reasoning works from general to specific?

deductive x

inductive

intuitive

general



23 What is the goal of performance management?

To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is maintained at an acceptable level. x

To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of multiple versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.

To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on the network can be appropriately regulated.

To detect, log, report, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network running effectively.