ccnp final exam qus 101 to 200

QUESTION 101 The console port on the Cisco 6513 switch allows which type of management?
A. Physical management of the switch.
B. Logical management of the switch.
C. In-band management of the switch.
D. Out-of-band management of the switch. Answer: D
QUESTION 102 A switch sends BPDUs with which destination address upon initial bootup?
A. A well-known multicast address.
B. The IP address of its default gateway.
C. The MAC addresses stored in the CAM table.
D. The MAC address of neighbors discovered via CDP Answer: A
QUESTION 103 Which protocol is an extension to ICMP that provides a mechanism for routers to advertise useful default routes?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. Proxy ARP
E. GLBP Answer: A
QUESTION 104 Which command sets the port duplex mode on a Catalyst 2924XL?
A. duplex
B. set duplex
C. port duplex
D. set port duplex
E. set duplex port Answer: A
QUESTION 105 Which statement about Root Path Cost is true?
A. It is the Path Cost of a particular Root Port.
B. It is the cost sent from the Root Bridge to all non-Root bridges.
C. This value is the cumulative cost of all the links leading to the Root Bridge.
D. This value is the cumulative cost of all links sent from the Designated Port of the Root Bridge. Answer: C Explanation: http://www.trinhtechnologies.com/ccnp_switching.htm There are two factors involved in the root port selection:
. Path Cost, which is the sum of all links crossed to get to the root bridge that incurs the lowest path cost when
forwarding a frame from a segment to the root bridge. Only one designated bridge for each LAN. The bridge has the least root path cost to the root bridge. If two bridges have the same root path cost, choose the highest-priority bridge as the designated bridge. It is the only bridge that allows to forward frames. The root bridge is always the designated bridge for all the segments connected to it. References: http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/cisintwk/ita/itad.htm http://apollo.iecs.fcu.edu.tw/lab/teacher/lan/bridge-1/tsld033.htm
QUESTION 106 What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation?
A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes Answer: D Explanation: Ethernet fr 801.q=1522 Bytes
QUESTION 107 Which protocol does TACACS+ use to communicate between a TACACS+ server and a TACACS+ client?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. LEAP Answer: B
QUESTION 108 Which VTP mode receives and forwards VTP updates, but does NOT participate in VTP synchronization on a Catalyst switch?
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
D. Pass-through Answer: C Explanation: Transparent-VTP transparent network devices do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent network device does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements. However, in VTP version 2, transparent network devices do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out their trunking LAN ports.
QUESTION 109 Which command enables an EtherChannel bundle on a Catalyst 2900XL switch?
A. Port group
B. Set port channel on C. Port etherchannel enable
D. Set etherchannel port enable Answer: A Explanation Under the interface command you have to indicate the syntax as port group (group number) for each interface you want to bundle in the etherchannel.
QUESTION 110 Which multicast address is reserved for the purpose of sending to all hosts on a subnet?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.2
C. 224.0.0.255
D. 239.0.0.255 Answer: A Explanation: Table 3 Well-Known Class D Addresses Class D Address Purpose 224.0.0.1 All hosts on a subnet 224.0.0.2 All routers on a subnet 224.0.0.4 All DVMRP routers 224.0.0.5 All MOSPF routers 224.0.0.9 Routing Information Protocol (RIP)-Version 2 224.0.1.1 Network Time Protocol (NTP) 224.0.1.2 SGI Dogfight 224.0.1.7 Audio news 224.0.1.11 IETF audio 224.0.1.12 IETF video 224.0.0.13 Protocol Independent Multicasting
QUESTION 111 Network topology exhibit: A network is configured with VLANs 1 through 5. 802.1 Q trunking is enabled between all switches. Currently,
access ports for VLAN 3 exist only on Cisco Highway3 and Cisco Highway6. What must the administrator do to ensure that the other switches do not receive unnecessary broadcast packets for VLAN 3 while still allowing all other VLAN packets to cross?
A. Configure VTP pruning.
B. Configure Cisco Highway3 and Cisco Highway6 as transparent switches.
C. Configure Cisco Highway1, Cisco Highway2, Cisco Highway4 and Cisco Highway5 as transparent switches.
D. Nothing is required. Only Cisco Highway3 and Cisco Highway6 will receive VLAN3 packets by default. Answer: A
QUESTION 112 Which two statements about dynamic VLANs are true? (Choose two)
A. Each switch port is assigned to a specific VLAN.
B. Dynamic VLANs require a VLAN Membership Policy Server.
C. Devices are in the same VLAN regardless of which port they attach to.
D. Dynamic VLAN assignment are made through the command interface. Answer: B, C Explanation: Note: This would be static assignments.
QUESTION 113 Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type of both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN. Answer: A
QUESTION 114 You need to take advantage of FastEthernet ports. Which two actions avoid configuration problems that cause the port to be automatically disabled? (Choose two)
A. Allow some ports in a channel to be disabled.
B. Configure the ports in a channel as dynamic VLAN ports.
C. Configure all ports in a channel to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.
D. Assign all ports in a channel to the same VLAN or configure them as trunk ports. Answer. C, D
QUESTION 115 Network topology exhibit: A service provider is currently providing services to Enterprise Cisco Highway.com. Enterprise Cisco Highway.com is supporting VLANs with the range of 1 to 15. Enterprise Acme.com has recently requested support from the service provider and is currently configured to support VLANs with the range of 1 to 25. Which Layer 2 technology should the service provider use to that traffic stays segmented and Enterprise Cisco Highway.com and Enterprise Acme.com can maintain their current VLAN configurations?
A. Transparent LAN services
B. Metro Ethernet over DWDM
C. 802.1Q in Q
D. EoMPLS
E. L2TPv3Answer: B Explanation: VLAN tunneling in the metro environment allows customers to extend their logical network topology across wide geographic areas. This comes into play especially when VoIP technologies are implemented. Without VLAN tunneling, customers are forced to renumber their existing VLANs, or the service provider is forced to provide some sort of VLAN translation at the access point to support multiple customers with overlapping VLAN numbers. However, through DWDM and separate wavelength routing solutions, each customer is completely segmented from the others, allowing complete autonomy.
QUESTION 116 What is the cause of jitter?
A. Variable queue delays
B. Packet drops
C. Transmitting too many small packets
D. Compression Answer: A Explanation: Delay variation or jitter is the difference in the delay times of consecutive packets. A jitter buffer is often used to smooth out arrival times, but there are instantaneous and total limits on buffering ability. Any type of buffering used to reduce jitter directly increases total network delay. In general, traffic requiring low latency also requires a minimum variation in latency. Note: Jitter in Packet Voice Networks Jitter is defined as a variation in the delay of received packets. At the sending side, packets are sent in a continuous stream with the packets being spaced evenly apart. Due to network congestion, improper queuing, or configuration errors, this steady stream can become lumpy, or the delay between each packet can vary instead of remaining constant.
QUESTION 117 How is the designated queries elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated. Answer: B Explanation: Unlike IGMP Version 1, in which the DR and the IGMP queried are typically the same router, in IGMP Version 2, the two functions are decoupled. The DR and the IGMP queried are selected based on different criteria and may be different routers on the same subnet. The DR is the router with the highest IP address on the subnet, whereas the IGMP queried is the router with the lowest IP address.
QUESTION 118 Which two statements are true about implementing QoS at the access, distribution, or core layer? (Choose two)
A. QoS implementation is the same for the access, distribution, and core layers.
B. Classification and Marking should be done at the access layer.
C. No QoS mechanisms are configured at the access layer since access layer switches like the Catalyst 2950 are not QoS capable.
D. The high speed core layer only requires proper queuing (like LLQ) and dropping (like WRED) configurations. Answer: B, D Explanation: You typically want to classify and mark traffic as close to source as possible typically access layer unless you have server farms that are grouped at distribution layer)
QUESTION 119 How does a Layer 2 switch handle multicast traffic, by default?
A. It blocks multicast traffic on all ports.
B. It delivers multicast traffic to all ports.
C. It delivers multicast traffic only to ports that subscribe to it.
D. It delivers multicast traffic only to clients that are member of a multicast group. Answer: B
QUESTION 120 When connecting a server, a workstation or a router to a switch what type of cable is used?
A. rollover cable
B. crossover cable
C. straight cable
D. coax cable Answer: C
QUESTION 121 What command is used on a Cisco IOS switch to assign a port to a VLAN?
A. switchport mode access
B. switchport trunk access
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport vlan Answer: C
QUESTION 122 Which Quality of Service technology classifies traffic entering a queue based on dynamically observed traffic flows?
A. FIFO
B. WFQ
C. Custom Queuing
D. Priority Queuing Answer: B
QUESTION 123 Which three statements apply to access control of both bridged and routed traffic for VLANs? (Choose three)
A. Router ACLs can be applied to the input and output directions of a VLAN interface.
B. Bridged ACLs can be applied to the input and output directions of a VLAN interface.
C. Only router ACLs can be applied to a VLAN interface.
D. VLAN maps can be applied to a VLAN interface.
E. VLAN maps and router ACLs can be used in combination. Answer: A, B, E Explanation: Router ACLs are applied on interfaces as either inbound or outbound. To filter both bridged and routed traffic, VLAN maps can be used by themselves or in conjunction with router ACLs. VLAN ACLs, also called VLAN maps, filter both bridged and routed packets. VLAN maps can be used to filter packets exchanged between devices in the same VLAN.
QUESTION 124 Network topology exhibit:
SwitchCisco HighwayKA(config)#inter fa 0/1 SwitchCisco HighwayB(config)#inter fa 0/1 SwitchCisco HighwayA(config)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SwitchCisco HighwayB (config)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SwitchCisco HighwayA (config-if)#switchport mode trunk SwitchCisco HighwayB (config-if)#switchport mode trunk Given the configurations on SwitchCisco HighwayA and SwitchCisco HighwayB, which statement is true?
A. The link is set to auto-negotiate trunking, and it will automatically become a trunk link unless configured otherwise.
B. The link is a trunking link and by default all VLANs will be transmitted across this trunk.
C. The link is prevented from generating DTP frames. Turning the Negotiation of Trunking off.
D. The link is not a trunk link so both interfaces must be the same VLAN and only that single VLAN is transmitted across the link. Answer: B
QUESTION 125 What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup
B. Easy to configure
C. Easy of adds, moves, and changes
D. Based on MAC address of the connected device Answer: C
QUESTION 126 When you issue a command show port 3/1 on an Ethernet port, you observe the Giants column has a nonzero entry. What could cause this?
A. IEEE 802.1Q
B. IEEE 802.10
C. Misconfigured NIC
D. User configuration Answer: A Explanation: The 802.1Q standard can create an interesting scenario on the network. Recalling that the maximum size for an Ethernet frame as specified by IEEE 802.3 is 1518 bytes, this means that if a maximum-sized Ethernet frame gets tagged, the frame size will be 1522 bytes, a number that violates the IEEE 802.3 standard. To resolve this issue, the 802.3 committee created a subgroup called 802.3ac to extend the maximum Ethernet size to 1522 bytes.
QUESTION 127 Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. Heartbeat
B. Join request
C. Leave report
D. Status report
E. Membership report Answer: C
QUESTION 128 Which two ACL types can be used on a Catalyst 3550 switch to filter traffic? (Choose two)
A. CBAC
B. VLAN Maps
C. Router ACLs
D. Reflexive ACL Answer: B, C
QUESTION 129 Which two statements about dynamic VLANs are true? (Choose two)
A. Each switch port is assigned to a specific VLAN.
B. Dynamic VLANs require a VLAN Membership Policy Server.
C. Devices are in the same VLAN regardless of which port they attach to.
D. Dynamic VLAN assignments are made through the command line interface. Answer: B, C
QUESTION 130 Storage Networking is part of what Cisco strategy?
A. content delivery
B. directory service
C. AWID
D. File service Answer: C Explanation: AVVID - As an element of Cisco AVVID (Architecture for Voice, Video and Integrated Data), Cisco Storage Networking allows customers to adopt a strategy for accessing, managing and protecting their growing information resources across a consolidated IP, Gigabit Ethernet, Fiber Channel, and optical network infrastructure.
QUESTION 131 You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in ISL mode between two Cisco switches. Which two are required at each end of the link for the trunk to operate correctly? (Choose two)
A. An identical VTP mode.
B. An identical speed/duplex.
C. An identical trunk negotiation parameter.
D. An identical trunk encapsulation parameter. Answer: B, D Explanation: Not A: VTP mode does not affect trunk configuration.
QUESTION 132 Which three statements are true about SPAN? (Choose three)
A. A destination port can be a source port.
B. A destination port can participate in only one SPAN session at a time.
C. A destination port can be an EtherChannel group.
D. A source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
E. A source port can be an EtherChannel group.
F. A source port can be a destination port. Answer: D, E Explanation: When configuring SPAN: There can only be one destination port. An EtherChannel port can only be a SPAN source port. Not A: A port cannot double as a destination port and a source port. It must be one or the other.
QUESTION 133 What are three functional areas of the Enterprise Composite Network Model? (Choose three)
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Service Provider Edge
D. Building Access
E. Server Farm
F. Campus Backbone Answer: B, C, E
QUESTION 134 Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) are true? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Catalyst multilayer switches have CEF enabled by default.
B. On the Catalyst 6500 with Policy Feature Card 2 and Multilayer Switch Feature Card 2, CEF can be disabled.
C. Per-destination load balancing is enabled by default when CEF is enabled.
D. Cisco routers use CEF when policy routing is implemented. Answer: A
QUESTION 135 At which OSI layer does Spanning Tree Protocol operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4 Answer: B
QUESTION 136 Which two statements are true about the UplinkFast feature? (Choose two)
A. It must be used with the PortFast feature enabled.
B. When enabled, it is enabled for the entire switch and all VLANs.
C. It should be configured on all switches, including the Root Bridge.
D. When the primary Root Port uplink fails, another blocked uplink can be immediately brought up for use. Answer: B, D
QUESTION 137 Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto Answer: D
QUESTION 138 Which statement describes the term "multilayer switching"?
A. Switches that operate at the access, distribution, and core layer at the design model.
B. An OSI Layer 1 and 2 bridging technique.
C. A technique to provide hardware switching of Layer 3 unicast packets.
D. A flow-based Layer 3 packet routing methodology. Answer: C
QUESTION 139 Which type of loss is observed during brief and normal periods of congestion in a healthy network?
A. Loss due to jitter.
B. Loss due to delay.
C. Loss due to noise.
D. Loss due to deliberately dropped packets. Answer: D
QUESTION 140 Which technology allows a service provider to support overlapping customer VLAN IDs over transparent LAN services?
A. 802.1q tunneling
B. ATM
C. SDH
D. IP0+Optical Answer: A
QUESTION 141 Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership query
B. host membership report
C. host membership status
D. host membership notification Answer: B
QUESTION 142 What is the default transition time for a switch to move from blocking to forwarding state in the Spanning-Tree Protocol?
A. 5 seconds
B. 50 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 90 seconds Answer: B
QUESTION 143 Which two statements about the ISL protocol are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be used between Cisco and non-Cisco switch devices.
B. It calculates a new CRC field on top of the existing CRC field.
C. It adds 4 bytes of protocol-specific information to the original Ethernet frame.
D. It adds 30 bytes of protocol-specific information to the original Ethernet frame. Answer: B, D
QUESTION 144
Given the network configuration above and assuming that STP is enabled, which port will be elected the non-designated port?
A. Port 1/1
B. Port 1/2
C. Port 2/1
D. Port 2/2
E. Port 3/1
F. Port 3/2 Answer: F
QUESTION 145 Which two statements apply to a Cisco Catalyst switch with dual supervisor cards? (Choose two)
A. The supervisor engines must be the same model.
B. The active supervisor is selected by priority.
C. The active supervisor controls the system bus.
D. The relevant protocols are active in the standby supervisor.
E. The supervisor engines perform load sharing. Answer: A, C Explanation: Redundant supervisor engines must be of the same type with the same model feature card. The active supervisor is responsible for controlling the system bus and all line cards.
QUESTION 146 Which two statements about VTP are correct? (Choose three)
A. VTP messages will not be forwarded over nontrunk links.
B. VTP domain names need to be identical. However, case doesn't matter.
C. A VTP enabled device which receives multiple advertisements will ignore advertisements with higher configuration revision numbers.
D. A device in "transparent" VTP mode will not forward VTP messages.
E. VTP pruning allows switches to prune VLANs that do not have any active ports associated with them. Answer: A, D QUESTION 147 Which command on a Catalyst 3550 sets a port to operate as a nontrunking, single VLAN, Layer 2 interface that sends and receives none capsulated (non-tagged) frames?
A. switchport
B. switchport mode access
C. switchport nonegotiate
D. switchport access vlan dynamic Answer: B
QUESTION 148 Identify four major modules in the Campus functional area of the Enterprise Composite Network Model. (Choose four)
A. Campus Infrastructure
B. Network Management
C. Server Farm
D. Edge Distribution
E. Access Distribution
F. Core Layer Answer: B, C, D, F
QUESTION 149 A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7f.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff Answer: A
QUESTION 150 What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two)
A. Supports Token Ring VLANs.
B. Allows VLAN consistency checks.
C. Saves VLAN configuration memory.
D. Reduces the amount of configuration necessary.
E. Allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree. Answer. A, B
QUESTION 151 On a Cisco multilayer switch, which command will configure a port to act as routed interface?
A. ip routing
B. switchport mode trunk
C. no switchport
D. switchport trunk native vlan 1 Answer: C
Explanation: To turn a switch-port into a router interface, it is simply a matter of turning off the switch-port functionality. Switch(config)#interface fa 0/1 Switch(config-if)#no switchport
QUESTION 152 What is the most valid reason to carry voice traffic on a separate VLAN in a switched network providing both data and IP telephony services?
A. IP phones require inline power and must be in separate VLAN to receive inline power.
B. IP telephony applications require prioritization over other traffic as they are more delay sensitive.
C. IP phones can only receive IP addresses through DHCP if they are in separate VLAN.
D. The CDP frames from the IP phone can only be recognized by the switch if the phone is in an auxiliary vlan. Answer: B
QUESTION 153 What are three disadvantages of a router-on-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three)
A. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting. Answer: B, D, E
QUESTION 154 Which three QoS mechanisms can be configured to improve VoIP quality on a converged network? (Choose three)
A. The use of a queuing method that will give VoIP traffic strict priority over other traffic.
B. The use of RTP header compression for the VoIP traffic.
C. The proper classification and marking of the traffic as close to the source as possible.
D. The use of 802.1QinQ trunking for VoIP traffic.
E. The use of WRED for the VoIP traffic. Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION 155 If a router has a route to the 172.27.0.0/16 network, which command will cause EIGRP to flag the 172.27.0.0/16 network as a candidate default route?
A. ip default-network 172.27.0.0
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.27.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. default-information originate
E. ip classless Answer: A
QUESTION 156 What protocol specified by RFC 1256 will allow an enabled IP host to find a new router when a router becomes unavailable?
A. IRDP
B. SNMP
C. HSRP
D. VRRP Answer: A
QUESTION 157
Given the switch configurations, which of the following statements is correct?
A. PAgP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
B. LACP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
C. One switch must be in LACP Active mode for the EtherChannel to form.
D. Only one switch must be in the On mode and the other in the LACP Passive mode for Etherchannel to form.
E. Each physical port in the EtherChannel must have the command switchport access vlan 10 for the EtherChannel to form. Answer: C Explanation: To start automatic EtherChannel configuration with LACP, configure at least one end of the link to active mode to initiate channeling, because ports in passive mode passively respond to initiation and never initiate the sending of LACP packets.
QUESTION 158 What are some of the advantages if implementing end-to-end VLANs? (Choose two)
A. End-to-end VLANs are easy to manage.
B. Users are grouped into VLANs independent of a physical location.
C. Each VLAN has a common set of security and resource requirements for all members.
D. Resources are restricted to a single location. Answer: B, C Explanation: Users are grouped into VLANs independent of physical location and dependent on group or job function. Each VLAN has a common set of security requirements for all members.
QUESTION 159 What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols D. show ip ospf interfaces Answer: B, D Explanation: You can also specify the interface without the neighbor ID to show all neighbors on the specified interface, as in
the following sample display:
Router# show ip ospf neighbor fddi 0
ID
Pri
State
Dead Time
Address

Interface
172.16.48.1
1
FULL/DROTHER
0:00:33
172.16.48.1

Fddi0
172.16.48.200
1
FULL/DROTHER
0:00:32
172.16.48.200
Fddi0
10.199.199.137
5
FULL/DR
0:00:32
172.16.48.189
Fddi0
Router# show ip ospf interface ethernet 0



Ethernet 0 is up, line protocol is up



Internet Address 192.168.254.202, Mask 255.255.255.0, Area 0.0.0.0


AS 201, Router ID 192.168.99.1, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 10


Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State OTHER, Priority 1



Designated Router id 192.168.254.10, Interface address 192.168.254.10

Backup Designated router id 192.168.254.28, Interface addr 192.168.254.28 Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 60, Wait 40, Retransmit 5 Hello due in 0:00:05 Neighbor Count is 8, Adjacent neighbor count is 2 Adjacent with neighbor 192.168.254.28 (Backup Designated Router) Adjacent with neighbor 192.168.254.10 (Designated Router)
QUESTION 160
Given the configuration on SwitchCK1 and SwitchCK2, which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. The trunk is currently using the ISL trunking protocol.
B. The trunk is currently using the 802.1q trunking protocol.
C. By default, all VLANs will be transmitted across this trunk.
D. By default, SwitchCK1 and SwitchCK2's Fast Ethernet 0/1 port will not generate DTP messages. Answer: B, C
QUESTION 161 How is network layer addressing accomplished in the OSI protocol suite?
A. Internet Protocol address
B. Media Access Control address
C. Packet Layer Protocol address
D. Network Service Access Point address
E. Authority and Format Identifier address Answer: D Explanation: Network Layer Addressing OSI network layer addressing is implemented by using two types of hierarchical addresses: network service access point addresses and network entity titles. A network service access point (NSAP) is a conceptual point on the boundary between the network and the transport layers. The NSAP is the location at which OSI network services are provided to the transport layer. Each transport layer entity is assigned a single NSAP, which is individually addressed in an OSI internetwork using NSAP addresses.
QUESTION 162 Which command displays RIP routing transactions?
A. show ip rip database
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocols rip
D. debug ip rip
E. debug ip routing Answer: D Explanation: debug ip rip events - Displays information on RIP routing transactions. Sample output of "debug ip rip" RIP: sending v1 update to 255.255.255.255 via Serial0 (137.99.88.2) network 131.108.0.0, metric 1
QUESTION 163 Two workstations are connected to the same switch on the same VLAN. They are both in the same subnets, work workstation CK1 cannot ping workstation CK2. What two steps should the administrator take to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two)
A. Verify that the router for the VLAN is operational.
B. Check the speed and duplex settings.
C. Check both devices for proper default gateway settings.
D. Check to see if the MAC addresses are in the CAM table. Answer: B, D
QUESTION 164 What does VLAN tunneling in the Metro Ethernet environment do for a customer?
A. Extends their logical network topology across wide geographic networks.
B. Renumbers their LANs.
C. Provides combined wavelength routing.
D. Translates their VLANs at the service provider edge. Answer: D
QUESTION 165 Which three network issues indicate a need to implement QoS features? (Choose three)
A. mis-routed packets
B. excess jitter
C. delay of critical traffic
D. packet loss due to congestion
E. data link layer broadcast storms F. ftp connections unsuccessful Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION 1 According to Cisco, the point of MLS is to:
A. Create a bridge between two VLANs
B. Create an encrypted session between two VLANs
C. Create a secure channel between two VLANs
D. Create a shortcut between two VLANs Answer: D Explanation: According to Cisco: It is a basic topology requirement of MLS that the router have a path to each of the VLANs. Remember that the point of MLS is to create a shortcut between two VLANs, so that the "routing" between the two end devices can be performed by the switch, thus freeing the router for other tasks. The switch is not actually routing; it is rewriting the frames so that it appears to the end devices that they are talking through the router. If the two devices are in the same VLAN, then the MLS-SE will switch the frame locally without utilizing MLS, as switches do in such a transparently bridged environment, and no MLS shortcut will be created. One can have multiple switches and routers in the network, and even multiple switches along the flow path, but the path between the two end devices for which one desires an MLS shortcut must include a single MLS-RP in that VLAN for that path. In another words, the flow from source to destination must cross a VLAN boundary on the same MLS-RP, and a candidate and enabler packet pair must be seen by the same MLS-SE for the MLS shortcut to be created. If these criteria are not met, then the packet will be routed normally without the use of MLS.
QUESTION 2 At what state will a HSRP-configured router be performing packet transfer function?
A. Listening
B. Active
C. Standby
D. Queuing
E. Waiting
F. Speaking and listening Answer: B Explanation: According to the online documentation provided by Cisco: At any time, HSRP-configured routers are in one of the following states: Active-The router is performing packet-transfer functions. Standby-The router is prepared to assume packet-transfer functions if the active router fails. Speaking and listening-The router is sending and receiving hello messages. Listening-The router is receiving hello messages.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following correctly describe the MLS-SE?
A. It is a switch with special MLS IOS.
B. It is a switch with special hardware.
C. It is a switch with no special hardware.
D. It is a switch with special software. Answer: B Explanation: According to Cisco: The MLS-SE is a switch with special hardware. For a member of the Catalyst 5000 family, MLS requires that the supervisor have a Netflow Feature Card (NFFC) installed. The Supervisor IIG and IIIG have one by default. In addition, a bare minimum of Catalyst OS 4.1.1 software is also required. Note that the 4.x train is now in General Deployment (GD), or passed rigorous end-user criteria and field-experience targets for stability, so check Cisco's website for the latest releases. IP MLS is supported and automatically enabled for Catalyst 6000 hardware and software with the MSFC/PFC (other routers have MLS disabled by default). Note that IPX MLS and MLS for multicasting may have different hardware and software (Cisco IOS and Catalyst OS) requirements. More Cisco platforms do/will support the MLS feature. Also, MLS must be enabled in order for a switch to be an MLS-SE.
QUESTION 4 When you configure a switch as the secondary root, the spanning tree bridge priority is modified from the default value to (fill in the blank): Answer: 16384 Explanation: According to Cisco: When you configure a switch as the secondary root, the spanning tree bridge priority is modified from the default value (32768) to 16384. This means that the switch is likely to become the root bridge for the specified VLANs if the primary root bridge fails (assuming the other switches in the network use the default bridge priority of 32768).
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is true about the 80/20 rule (Choose all that apply)?
A. 20 percent of the traffic on a network segment should be local
B. no more than 20 percent of the network traffic should be able to move across a backbone.
C. no more than 80 percent of the network traffic should be able to move across a backbone.
D. 80 percent of the traffic on a network segment should be local Answer: B D
QUESTION 6 VTP-capable devices can be configured to operate in which of the following modes such that a full list of all VLANS can be maintained?
A. VTP Bypass
B. VTP Client
C. VTP Transparent
D. VTP Restore E. VTP Server Answer: BE Explanation: According to the online documentation provided by Cisco: VTP-capable devices can be configured to operate in the following three modes: The VTP Server maintains a full list of all VLANs within the VTP domain. Information is stored in nonvolatile random-access memory (NVRAM). The server can add, delete, and rename VLANs. The VTP Client also maintains a full list of all VLANs. However, it will not store in NVRAM. The client can not add, delete, or rename VLANs. Any changes made must be received from a VTP server advertisement. The VTP Transparent does not participate in VTP. However, it will pass on a VTP advertisement. VLAN, as defined, is only local to the switch and is stored in NVRAM.
QUESTION 7 The show ip interface command displays what types of current IP MLS settings (choose all that apply):
A. Current settings for the keepalive timer
B. Current settings for the retry timer
C. Current settings for the retry count Answer: A, B, C Explanation: According to Cisco: The show ip [interface] command displays IP MLS details. The output of the command includes: IP MLS status (enabled or disabled) for switch interfaces and subinterfaces Flow mask used by this device when creating Layer 3-switching entries for the router Current settings for the keepalive timer, retry timer, and retry count
QUESTION 8 A VTP version 2-capable switch can operate in the same VTP domain as a switch running VTP version 1 provided:
A. VTP version 2 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
B. VTP version 2 is enabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
C. VTP version 1 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch Answer: A Explanation: According to Cisco: A VTP version 2-capable switch can operate in the same VTP domain as a switch running VTP version 1 provided VTP version 2 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch (VTP version 2 is disabled by default).
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit: Warning: Spantree port fast start should only be enabled on ports connected to a single host. Connecting hubs, concentrators, switches, bridges, etc. to a fast start port can cause temporary spanning tree loops. Use with caution. Spantree ports 4/1-24 fast start enabled. What command produces this output (fill in the blank): Answer: set spantree portfast 4/1-24 enable Explanation: According to Cisco:
This setting should be configured only on ports that are connected to workstations or PCs. Do not enable portfast on any port connected to another switch.
QUESTION 10 STP prevents loop by forcing certain redundant data paths into a standby (blocked) state, while leaving others in a forwarding state.
A. False
B. True
C. There is not enough information to determine Answer: B Explanation: According to Cisco: STP forces certain redundant data paths into a standby (blocked) state, while leaving others in a forwarding state. If a link in forwarding state becomes unavailable, STP reconfigures the network and reroutes data paths by activating the appropriate standby path.
QUESTION 11 What command can you use on a Cisco router to enable IP MLS globally (CASE SENSITIVE fill in the blank): Answer: mls rp ip Explanation: According to the online documentation provided by Cisco: To use IP MLS, you must globally enable IP MLS on the router. To enable IP MLS globally on the MLS-RP, perform this task in global configuration mode: Task Command Globally enable IP MLS on the router. mls rp ip
QUESTION 12 What command can you use on a Cisco router to specify a router interface for IP MLS (CASE SENSITIVE fill in the blank): Answer: mls rp ip Explanation: According to the online documentation provided by Cisco: To enable IP MLS on a specific router interface, perform this task in interface configuration mode: Task Command Specify a router interface for IP MLS. mls rp ip This example shows how to enable IP MLS on a router interface: Router(config-if)Qmls rp ip Router(config-if)Q
QUESTION 13 You are a Cisco Certified Engineer. You are configuring a switching solution. You need to find ways to conveniently manage your Catalyst Token Ring switches. Which of the following are NOT the Token Ring extensions available to the Remote Network Monitoring MIB (Choose all that apply)?
A. Sub-MAC Layer Address IDs
B. Promiscuous Statistics Group
C. Sub-MAC Layer Address Group
D. Sub-MAC Layer Group E. MAC-layer Statistics Group Answer: A, C, D Explanation: According to Cisco: As an option, the Catalyst Token Ring switches provide RMON support for statistics, history, alarms, and events. They also provide support for the following groups of the Token Ring extensions to the Remote Network Monitoring MIB (RFC 1513): MAC-layer Statistics Group--Collection of MAC-layer statistics kept for each Token Ring interface, such as the total number of MAC packets received and the number of times the port entered a beaconing state. Promiscuous Statistics Group--Collection of promiscuous statistics kept for non-MAC packets on each Token Ring interface, such as the total number of good non-MAC frames received that were directed to an LLC broadcast address. Token Ring Station Group--The Catalyst Token Ring switches support the ringStationControlTable portion of the Token Ring Station Group. This support allows a Catalyst Token Ring switch to gather segment information from each ring segment to which it is attached. This segment information includes Ring State, Beacon Sender, Beacon NAUN, and Active Monitor MacAddress, as well as Control Order Changes. Token Ring Station Order Group--Listing of the order of stations on the monitored rings.
QUESTION 14 You are a Cisco Certified Engineer. You are configuring a switching solution. Which of the following statements do NOT correctly describe a trunk link (Choose all that apply)?
A. The trunk link belongs to a specific VLAN.
B. Multiple trunk links are used to connect multiple devices.
C. A trunk link only supports native VLAN.
D. Trunk links use 802.10 to identify a VLAN.
E. The native VLAN of the trunk link is the VLAN that the trunk uses if that link fails for any reason. Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: According to Cisco: trunk is a point-to-point link that transmits and receives traffic between switches or between switches and routers. Trunks carry the traffic of multiple VLANs and can extend VLANs across an entire network. 100BaseT and Gigabit Ethernet trunks use Cisco ISL (the default protocol) or industry-standard IEEE 802.1 QUESTION NO: to carry traffic for multiple VLANs over a single link. Frames received from users in the administratively-defined VLANs are identified or tagged for transmission to other devices. Based on rules you define, a unique identifier (the tag) is inserted in each frame header before it is forwarded. The tag is examined and understood by each device before any broadcasts or transmission to other switches, routers, or end stations. When the frame reaches the last switch or router, the tag is removed before the frame is transmitted to the target end station. More information can be found at: this site
QUESTION 15 MLS requires that MLS components be in the same Virtual Trunking Protocol domain.
A. False
B. There is not enough information to determine
C. True Answer: C Explanation: According to Cisco: MLS requires that MLS components, including the end stations, must be in the same Virtual Trunking Protocol (VTP) domain. VTP is a Layer 2 protocol used for managing VLANs on several Catalyst switches from a central switch. It allows an administrator to create or delete a VLAN on all switches in a domain without having to do so on every switch in that domain. The MultiLayer Switching Protocol (MLSP), which the MLS-SE and the MLS-RP use to communicate with one another, does not cross a VTP domain boundary.
QUESTION 16 Which of the following is true concerning the reason behind deploying HSRP (Choose all that apply)?
A. HSRP provides redundancy and fault tolerant
B. HSRP allows one router to automatically assume the function of the second router if the second router fails
C. HSRP allows one router to automatically assume the function of the second router if the second router starts
D. HSRP provides redundancy and load balancing Answer: A, B
QUESTION 17 According to Cisco, if you configure the switch as VTP transparent, you can create and modify VLANs but the changes affect all the switches on the network.
A. True
B. There is not enough information to determine
C. False Answer: C Explanation: According to Cisco: If you configure the switch as VTP transparent, you can create and modify VLANs but the changes affect only the individual switch.
QUESTION 18 Spanning-Tree Protocol runs at ____________
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 5
D. Layer 2 Answer: D Explanation: According to Cisco: Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 (L2) protocol designed to run on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is called 802.1d. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not run into a loop situation when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.
QUESTION 19 Which of the following are valid reasons to deploy VLAN (Choose all that apply)?
A. to address the addition of network management through layer 3 routing protocols.
B. to address the redundancy issues of a flat network topology
C. to address the performance issues of a non-flat network topology
D. to address the scalability issues of a flat network topology Answer: A, D Explanation: With VLAN, you have more flexibility in configuring your network design.
QUESTION 20 When configuring STP, the root switch should be the:
A. most centralized switch
B. most secure switch
C. most updated switch
D. most powerful switch Answer: A Explanation: According to Cisco: Before configuring STP, you need to select a switch to be the root of the spanning tree. It does not necessarily have to be the most powerful switch; it should be the most centralized switch on the network. All dataflow across the network will be from the perspective of this switch. It is also important that this switch be the least disturbed switch in the network. The backbone switches are often selected for this function, because they typically do not have end stations connected to them. They are also less likely to be disturbed during moves and changes within the network.
QUESTION 21 What command do you use to find out whether the spanning tree Backbone Fast Convergence feature is enabled (CASE SENSITIVE fill in the blank): Answer: show spantree backbonefast Explanation: According to the online documentation provided by Cisco: Commands to Use for Troubleshooting The Configuration show spantree vlan_id - Shows the current state of the spanning tree for the "vlan_id" entered from the perspective of the switch on which it is entered. show spantree summary - Provides a summary of connected spanning tree ports by VLAN. show spantree statistics - Shows spanning tree statistical information. show spantree backbonefast - Displays whether the spanning tree Backbone Fast Convergence feature is enabled. show spantree blockedports - Displays only the blocked ports. show spantree portstate - Determines the current spanning tree state of a Token Ring port within a spanning tree. show spantree portvlancost - Shows the path cost for the VLANs on a port. show spantree uplinkfast - Shows the uplinkfast settings.
QUESTION 22 The Catalyst 6000 family of switches supports the use of external MLS-RP.
A. There is not enough information to determine
B. True
C. False Answer: C Explanation: According to Cisco: The Catalyst 6000 family of switches does not support an external MLS-RP at this time. The MLS-RP must be an MSFC.
QUESTION 23 In PIM, how do you display information that are actually cached in the routing table?
A. show ip pim [group-name ] [mapping]
B. show ip rp [group-name group-address] [mapping]
C. show ip pim rp [group-name group-address] [mapping]
D. show ip rp pim [group-name group-address] [mapping] Answer: C Explanation: "Show ip mroute [Hostname Group]" is used to display the multicast routing table.
QUESTION 24 According to Cisco, the thing to remember in the STP root selection process is that:
A. smaller is better.
B. larger is better.
C. Ids should be all zeros Answer: A Explanation: According to Cisco: The thing to remember in the STP root selection process is that smaller is better. If the Root ID on Switch A is advertising it is smaller than the Root ID that its neighbor (Switch B) is advertising, Switch A's information is better. Switch B stops advertising its Root ID, and instead accepts that of Switch A.
QUESTION 25 You cannot create VLANs on a VTP server until:
A. the VTP server ID is cleared
B. the VTP membership list is refreshed
C. the priority is cleared
D. the management domain name is specified Answer: D Explanation: According to Cisco: By default, the switch is in VTP server mode and is in the no-management domain state until the switch receives an advertisement for a domain over a trunk link or you configure a management domain. You cannot create or modify VLANs on a VTP server until the management domain name is specified or learned.
QUESTION 26 If you configure VTP in secure mode, you must:
A. assign a management domain password to the VTP Server in the domain.
B. assign a management domain password to each switch in the domain.
C. assign a management domain password to the root switch in the domain. Answer: B Explanation: According to Cisco: If you configure VTP in secure mode, the management domain will not function properly if you do not assign a management domain password to each switch in the domain.
QUESTION 27 After you decide which switch should be the root switch, you need to set which variable such that this switch will be automatically selected by the other switches as the root switch (fill in the blank): Answer: bridge priority Explanation: According to Cisco: After you decide which switch should be the root switch, set the appropriate variables to designate it as the root switch. The only variable you have to set is the bridge priority. If this switch has a bridge priority that is lower than all other switches, it will be automatically selected by the other switches as the root switch.
QUESTION 28 You are a Cisco Certified Engineer. You are configuring a switching solution. Your company has redesigned its campus network to support three switch blocks that broadcast domains to each individual switch block, while still allowing inter-VLAN routing within and between switch blocks. Which of the following is the best device to use at the distribution layer?
A. Catalyst 2900 series switch
B. Catalyst 3000 series switch
C. Catalyst 1900
D. Catalyst 4000 series switch
E. Catalyst 5000 series switch with l RSM
F. Catalyst 8500 series switch Answer: E Explanation: According to Cisco: Modules for the Catalyst 5000 family chassis --- Catalyst 5500, 5509, 5505, 5000, and 5002---are designed for complete interoperability and investment protection. New functionalities in the Catalyst 5000 family support multiprotocol NetFlow Switching for scalable convergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, adding the benefits of multiprotocol, multilayer switching and other Cisco IOS network services. The range of media support in the Catalyst 5000 family enables network managers to deliver high-performance backbone access to accommodate Web browser-based traffic across the intranet. A growing number of interface modules operate in any Catalyst 5000 family switch to deliver dedicated bandwidth to users through highdensity group switched 10BaseT or 100BaseT Ethernet; flexible 10/100BASE-T Ethernet, fiber-based Fast Ethernet, and Fast EtherChannel; Token Ring; CDDI/FDDI; ATM LAN Emulation (LANE) and Multiprotocol over ATM (MPOA); the Route/Switch module (based on the Route/Switch Processor for the Cisco 7500 series router); and Gigabit Ethernet. Unique to the Catalyst 5500 Series are the ATM Switch Processor and ATM switch interface modules and port adapters.
QUESTION 29 The stable active spanning tree topology of a switched network is NOT determined by:
A. The port identifier associated with each Layer 2 interface
B. The port identifier associated with each Layer 3 interface
C. The spanning tree path cost to the root bridge
D. The unique bridge Answer: B Explanation: According to Cisco: The stable active spanning tree topology of a switched network is determined by the following:
The unique bridge ID (bridge priority and MAC address) associated with each VLAN on each switch The spanning tree path cost to the root bridge The port identifier (port priority and MAC address) associated with each Layer 2 interface
QUESTION 30 For a member of the Catalyst 5000 family to run MLS, it is required that the supervisor has which of the following installed (choose all that apply):
A. IOS V13
B. IOS V12.11
C. Netflow Feature Card
D. The MLS-SE RP Card Answer: C Explanation: According to Cisco: The MLS-SE is a switch with special hardware. For a member of the Catalyst 5000 family, MLS requires that the supervisor have a Netflow Feature Card (NFFC) installed. The Supervisor IIG and IIIG have one by default. In addition, a bare minimum of Catalyst OS 4.1.1 software is also required. Note that the 4.x train is now in General Deployment (GD), or passed rigorous end-user criteria and field-experience targets for stability, so check Cisco's website for the latest releases. IP MLS is supported and automatically enabled for Catalyst 6000 hardware and software with the MSFC/PFC (other routers have MLS disabled by default). Note that IPX MLS and MLS for multicasting may have different hardware and software (Cisco IOS and Catalyst OS) requirements. More Cisco platforms do/will support the MLS feature. Also, MLS must be enabled in order for a switch to be an MLS-SE.